Welcome to our MCQs Assessment series! In this post, we provide the Veterinary Pathology MCQs With Answers PDF Free Download and a quiz on several veterinary pathology topics to help everyone evaluate their understanding and mastery of Veterinary Pathology. These questions are designed to cover key concepts and topics within the subject area, serving as an excellent resource for self-assessment and review.
General Pathology
1. What is the purpose of inflammation in the body?
a) To cause tissue damage
b) To accelerate aging
c) To protect against infection and injury
d) To increase blood flow to injured areas
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2. Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
a) Redness
b) Swelling
c) Coolness
d) Pain
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3. What is the primary cause of swelling during inflammation?
a) Increased blood flow
b) Activation of enzymes
c) Outpouring of protein-rich fluid
d) Vasoconstriction
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4. What is the effect of vasodilation during inflammation?
a) Decreased blood flow
b) Increased blood flow and increased vascular permeability
c) Decreased vascular permeability
d) Increased blood flow and decreased vascular permeability
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5. What is the role of leukocytes in acute inflammation?
a) Exudation of leukocytes
b) Production of antibodies
c) Breakdown of damaged tissue
d) Synthesis of inflammatory mediators
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6. Which scientist was the first to describe vascular changes in inflammation?
a) Julius Cohnheim
b) Rudolf Virchow
c) Cornelius Celsus
d) Hippocrates
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7. What happens to blood vessel permeability during inflammation?
a) It decreases
b) It remains unchanged
c) It increases
d) It becomes impermeable
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8. Which event contributes to the redness and warmth observed in inflammation?
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Slowing of blood flow
c) Vasodilation and increased blood flow
d) Decreased blood volume
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9. What is the primary mechanism behind the onset of acute inflammation?
a) Hemodynamic changes
b) Cellular events
c) Phagocytosis
d) Increased blood viscosity
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10. What effect does vasoconstriction have on blood vessels during inflammation?
a) It dilates blood vessels
b) It constricts blood vessels
c) It increases blood flow
d) It decreases blood flow
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11. Which process contributes to the production of tissue fluid during inflammation?
a) Decreased vascular permeability
b) Increased oncotic pressure gradient
c) Decreased hydrostatic pressure
d) Increased capillary permeability
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12. What causes the slowing or stasis of blood flow during inflammation?
a) Increased vascular permeability
b) Decreased blood viscosity
c) Raised blood viscosity
d) Increased concentration of leukocytes
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13. Which type of inflammation has an onset that is rapid and short-lived?
a) Chronic inflammation
b) Acute inflammation
c) Subacute inflammation
d) Superficial inflammation
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14. What is the primary inflammatory cell involved in chronic inflammation?
a) Neutrophils
b) Macrophages
c) Eosinophils
d) Basophils
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15. Which of the following is NOT a cellular event in acute inflammation?
a) Exudation of leukocytes
b) Phagocytosis
c) Altered vascular permeability
d) Hemodynamic changes
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16. What effect does increased blood viscosity have on blood flow during inflammation?
a) It speeds up blood flow
b) It slows down blood flow
c) It stops blood flow completely
d) It has no effect on blood flow
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17. Which term refers to the outpouring of protein-rich fluid into extravascular tissues during
inflammation?
a) Hemorrhage
b) Exudate
c) Thrombosis
d) Infarction
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18. What is the primary cause of pain during inflammation?
a) Decreased pressure on sensory nerve endings
b) Decreased stretching of tissues
c) Chemical mediators released following injury
d) Reduced blood flow to the area
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19. Which process contributes to the loss of function observed during inflammation?
a) Increase in tissue elasticity
b) Decrease in tissue swelling
c) Destruction of tissues
d) Decrease in blood flow to the area
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20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of chronic inflammation?
a) Insidious onset
b) Short duration
c) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages
d) Longer duration
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Cell Injury
1. What term describes the failure to maintain homeostatic conditions in the body?
A) Necrosis
B) Pathogenesis
C) Disease
D) Hypoxia
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2. Which type of cell death occurs due to the activation of an internally controlled suicide program?
A) Apoptosis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Gangrene
D) Infarction
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3. What is the term for the decrease in cell size due to decreased use or blood supply?
A) Hypertrophy
B) Dysplasia
C) Atrophy
D) Hyperplasia
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4. Which type of necrosis is characterized by the transformation of tissue into a liquid viscous
mass?
A) Fat necrosis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Liquefactive necrosis
D) Caseous necrosis
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5. Gangrene predominantly characterized by coagulative necrosis is termed as:
A) Dry gangrene
B) Wet gangrene
C) Fat gangrene
D) Caseous gangrene
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6. What occurs when necrotic tissue is invaded by new blood vessels, fibroblasts, and
macrophages?
A) Encapsulation
B) Liquefaction
C) Organization
D) Abscessation
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7. Which factor distinguishes hypoxia from ischemia?
A) Availability of metabolic substrates
B) Effect on aerobic oxidative respiration
C) Degree of tissue damage
D) Presence of glycolytic energy production
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8. Which type of gangrene is predominantly characterized by coagulative necrosis?
A) Dry gangrene
B) Wet gangrene
C) Fat gangrene
D) Caseous gangrene
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9. What term refers to the decrease in cell size due to decreased use or blood supply?
A) Hypertrophy
B) Dysplasia
C) Atrophy
D) Hyperplasia
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10. What is the term for the invasion and putrefaction of necrotic tissue by saprophytic bacteria?
A) Necrosis
B) Gangrene
C) Apoptosis
D) Hypoxia
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11. What type of necrosis is associated with tuberculosis infection?
A) Fat necrosis
B) Caseous necrosis
C) Coagulative necrosis
D) Liquefactive necrosis
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12. Which type of gangrene is more likely to result in death if present in vital organs?
A) Dry gangrene
B) Wet gangrene
C) Fat gangrene
D) Caseous gangrene
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13. What term refers to the invasion and putrefaction of necrotic tissue by saprophytic bacteria?
A) Necrosis
B) Gangrene
C) Apoptosis
D) Hypoxia
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14. What type of necrosis is commonly observed in myocardial infarctions?
A) Liquefactive necrosis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
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15. Which type of cell death occurs due to the activation of an internally controlled suicide
program?
A) Apoptosis
B) Necrosis
C) Hypoxia
D) Gangrene
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16. What is the term for the increase in cell size?
A) Atrophy
B) Hypertrophy
C) Hyperplasia
D) Dysplasia
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17. Which type of necrosis is associated with acute pancreatitis?
A) Liquefactive necrosis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
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18. Gangrene characterized by more pronounced liquefactive necrosis is termed as:
A) Dry gangrene
B) Wet gangrene
C) Fat gangrene
D) Caseous gangrene
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19. Which process occurs when necrotic tissue is replaced by new vascular fibrous tissue?
A) Encapsulation
B) Liquefaction
C) Organization
D) Abscessation
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20. What type of necrosis is characteristic of focal bacterial or fungal infections?
A) Fat necrosis
B) Coagulative necrosis
C) Liquefactive necrosis
D) Caseous necrosis
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Tissue Healing
1. Which type of cells are continuously dividing throughout life to replace dying cells?
a) Stable cells
b) Permanent cells
c) Labile cells
d) Mesenchymal cells
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2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of malignant neoplasms?
a) Slow growth
b) Tendency to invade surrounding tissues
c) Ability to metastasize
d) Less differentiation
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3. Which factor is known to influence wound healing by providing an adequate blood supply?
a) Local irritants
b) Inadequate nutrition
c) Foreign bodies
d) Ischemia
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4. What are neoplasms derived from connective tissue called?
a) Carcinomas
b) Papillomas
c) Sarcomas
d) Adenomas
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5. Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by mitosis?
a) G1 phase
b) S phase
c) G2 phase
d) M phase
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6. What is the term for healing where the wound healing takes place without interference, such as in a
clean closed wound?
a) Healing by second intention
b) Fibrosis
c) Healing by first intention
d) Angiogenesis
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7. Which type of cells have low-level proliferative capacity in their normal state but can undergo rapid division in response to injury?
a) Labile cells
b) Stable cells
c) Permanent cells
d) Mesenchymal cells
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8. Which vitamin is crucial for the synthesis of normal collagen and deficiency of which can result in impaired wound healing?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
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9. Which phase of the cell cycle precedes DNA synthesis?
a) G1 phase
b) S phase
c) G2 phase
d) M phase
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10. What is the term for localized but haphazard growth of tissues normally found at a given site, as seen
in pulmonary hamartoma?
a) Choristoma
b) Sarcoma
c) Hamartoma
d) Adenoma
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11. Which factor is crucial for the migration and proliferation of fibroblasts during repair by connective
tissue?
a) Angiogenesis
b) Glucocorticoids
c) Deposition of extracellular matrix
d) Ischemia
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12. What is the term for the process whereby the body restores an injured part to as near its previous normal condition as possible?
a) Tissue regeneration
b) Tissue repair
c) Fibrosis
d) Granulation
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13. Which type of neoplasm is characterized by slow growth, circumscription, and lack of invasion?
a) Malignant neoplasm
b) Carcinoma
c) Benign neoplasm
d) Sarcoma
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14. Which vitamin deficiency is known to impair synthesis of normal collagen, affecting wound healing?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
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15. Which type of neoplasm is composed of cells that look less like the normal cell of origin and has a
higher rate of proliferation?
a) Benign neoplasm
b) Carcinoma
c) Sarcoma
d) Hamartoma
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16. What is the term for the repair process involving the formation of granulation tissue and subsequent
conversion into fibrous tissue?
a) Tissue regeneration
b) Fibrosis
c) Tumor classification
d) Angiogenesis
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17. Which intrinsic factor has been extensively studied in relation to neoplasia, leading to the identification of strains of mice unusually susceptible or resistant to tumors?
a) Age
b) Pigmentation
c) Heredity
d) Tumor immunity
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Pathology Of Genital System
1. Which of the following is not a common lesion in the genital system?
a) Congenital abnormalities
b) Ovarian cysts
c) Cardiac hypertrophy
d) Inflammation and neoplasia
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2. What is the most likely outcome for true hermaphrodites?
a) Fertility
b) Sterility
c) Partial infertility
d) No effect on fertility
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3. What is the typical size range of ovarian cysts in sows?
a) Up to 5 cm
b) Up to 10 cm
c) Up to 14 cm
d) Up to 20 cm
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4. Which species is most likely to develop granulosa cell tumors in the ovaries?
a) Horse
b) Dog
c) Cow
d) Cat
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5. What is a common symptom associated with granulosa cell tumors in mares and cows?
a) Respiratory distress
b) Neurological deficits
c) Behavioral changes
d) Digestive disturbances
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6. Which animal is commonly affected by cystic endometrial hyperplasia (CEH)?
a) Horse
b) Dog
c) Rabbit
d) Cow
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7. What is a characteristic histological feature of uterine carcinomas?
a) Squamous differentiation
b) Melanin production
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Fibrous encapsulation
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8. In which species is the incidence of endometrial carcinomas particularly high?
a) Dogs
b) Cats
c) Rabbits
d) Horses
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9. What condition involves invagination of part of the allantochorion of one fetus into another?
a) Allantochorionic hyperplasia
b) Fetal mummification
c) Amniotic plaques
d) Allantochorionic invagination
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10. What is the normal occurrence associated with avillous areas on the chorion?
a) Congenital defect
b) Infection
c) Normal development
d) Tumor growth
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11. Which condition involves the development of accessory caruncles in the uterus?
a) Placental insufficiency
b) Adventitial placentation
c) Chorioamnionitis
d) Umbilical cord torsion
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12. What are amniotic plaques typically composed of?
a) Fibrin
b) Keratin
c) Cartilage
d) Epithelial cells
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13. What condition is characterized by marked thickening of fetal membranes due to edema?
a) Fibrino-necrotizing placentitis
b) Fetal mummification
c) Hydrallantois
d) Placental insufficiency
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14. What is the cause of fetal mummification?
a) Umbilical cord strangulation
b) Maternal infection
c) Genetic abnormalities
d) Trauma during birth
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15. Which condition involves hyperemia and coagulation necrosis of the vaginal mucosa?
a) Fibrino-necrotizing vaginitis
b) Granular vaginitis
c) Chronic vaginitis
d) Fibrotic vaginitis
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16. What is the likely cause of granular vaginitis in pigs?
a) Bacterial infection
b) Fungal infection
c) Viral infection
d) Immunological reaction
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17. Which species commonly experiences torsion of the spermatic cord?
a) Boar
b) Bull
c) Horse
d) Cat
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18. What is a characteristic feature of Leydig cell tumors of the testis?
a) Hemorrhages
b) White coloration
c) Squamous differentiation
d) Adenocarcinoma
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19. What is the typical presentation of prostatic hyperplasia in dogs?
a) Asymmetrical enlargement
b) Smooth surface
c) Nodular irregularity
d) Cystic formations
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20. What condition involves ulcers in the preputial diverticulum?
a) Bacterial infection
b) Viral infection
c) Trauma
d) Fibro papilloma
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21. What causes fibro papillomas on the glans penis in bulls?
a) Trauma
b) Bacterial infection
c) Viral infection
d) Fungal infection
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22. Which lesion may induce pyelonephritis in boars?
a) Fibro papilloma
b) Ulcers in preputial diverticulum
c) Prostatic hyperplasia
d) Torsion of the spermatic cord
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23. What is a characteristic appearance of Leydig cell tumors in dogs?
a) Cauliflower-like growth
b) Smooth surface
c) Nodular irregularity
d) Yellow coloration
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24. Which condition involves multiple plaques with hyper- and parakeratotic epithelium in the preputial
diverticulum?
a) Fibro papilloma
b) Ulcers in preputial diverticulum
c) Prostatic hyperplasia
d) Granular vaginitis
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25. What is a characteristic feature of fibrotic testis?
a) Soft texture
b) Hemorrhagic areas
c) Predominantly fibrous tissue
d) Normal appearance
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Pathology Of Digestive System
1. Which of the following is not part of the upper alimentary tract?
A) Small intestine
B) Pharynx
C) Salivary glands
D) Esophagus
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2. What term describes the inflammation of the gums?
A) Glossitis
B) Gingivitis
C) Cheilitis
D) Lampas
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3. Which of the following is a potential cause of stomatitis?
A) Excessive salivation
B) Dental caries
C) Exposure to hot water
D) Proper nutrition
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4. What is the most commonly observed type of stomatitis in animals?
A) Vesicular stomatitis
B) Noma
C) Catarrhal stomatitis
D) Glossitis
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5. Which microorganism is not mentioned as a cause of stomatitis?
A) Actinomyces bovis
B) Monilia albicans
C) Streptococcus
D) Escherichia coli
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6. What is the term for the congenital anomaly characterized by inadequate bilateral ingrowth of the palatine shelves?
A) Cleft palate
B) Brachygnathia superior
C) Odontodystrophy
D) Dental calculus
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7. Which dental disease is caused by the action of bacteria on carbohydrates, resulting in lactic acid production?
A) Dental caries
B) Periodontal disease
C) Odontodystrophy
D) Dental calculus
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8. What condition refers to excessive salivation or drooling?
A) Ptyalism
B) Gingivitis
C) Noma
D) Stomatitis
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9. Which of the following is a potential cause of ptyalism?
A) Normal conformation of lips and mouth
B) Lack of dental hygiene
C) Neurological impairment
D) Proper nutrition
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10. What is the term for a cyst filled with mucus that appears as a result of the blockage of a salivary gland?
A) Ptyalism
B) Ranula
C) Renula
D) Odontodystrophy
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11. What is the characteristic appearance of ranula?
A) A cyst on the gums
B) A swelling of connective tissue under the tongue
C) Yellow stained spots on the enamel
D) Vesicles on the oral mucosa
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12. Which of the following medical conditions is characterized by excessive saliva production in humans?
A) Anemia
B) Cyanosis
C) Ptyalism
D) Septicemia
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13. Which neoplasm occurs most frequently in dogs and tends to disappear spontaneously in 1-3 months if not removed?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Fibrosarcoma
C) Osteogenic sarcoma
D) Oral papilloma
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14. What is the term used to describe an absence of or deficiency in the secretion of saliva?
A) Ptyalism
B) Aptyalism
C) Renula
D) Odontodystrophy
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15. What condition refers to hypoplasia of the enamel?
A) Dental caries
B) Periodontal disease
C) Odontodystrophy
D) Dental calculus
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16. Which of the following is not mentioned as a potential cause of dental calculus?
A) Bacterial agents
B) Dietary deficiencies
C) Odontodystrophy
D) Local trauma
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17. What term describes a decay of teeth characterized by enamel decalcification followed by softening and discoloration?
A) Ptyalism
B) Dental caries
C) Odontodystrophy
D) Dental calculus
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18. What is the term for a rapidly spreading pseudomembranous or gangrenous stomatitis associated with the pathogenic activity of normal oral flora?
A) Vesicular stomatitis
B) Noma
C) Catarrhal stomatitis
D) Oral papilloma
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19. Which condition may result from exposure to foreign bodies such as thorns or sharp objects in the feed?
A) Dental caries
B) Ptyalism
C) Ranula
D) Oral erosions and ulcers
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20. Which of the following is not a potential cause of stomatitis?
A) Exposure to foreign bodies
B) Bacterial agents
C) Viral agents
D) Proper nutrition
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21. What term describes the condition in which there is destructive decalcification of dental enamel followed by destruction of underlying tissues?
A) Dental caries
B) Periodontal disease
C) Odontodystrophy
D) Dental calculus
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22. Which of the following is not a potential cause of ptyalism?
A) Dental disease
B) Nausea
C) Contact with caustic agents
D) Proper nutrition
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23. What is the term for excessive salivation or drooling?
A) Ptyalism
B) Gingivitis
C) Noma
D) Stomatitis
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24. What causes salivary cysts?
A) Excessive production of saliva
B) Trauma to the salivary ducts
C) Inefficient swallowing
D) Lack of awareness of saliva build-up
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25. What may result in the closure of salivary ducts?
A) Abscess or tumor in the area
B) Thickened fluid due to inflammation
C) Excessive drooling
D) Sleeping on one’s side
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26. What is the medical term for drooling?
A) Ptyalism
B) Salivary cyst
C) Sialorrhea
D) Abscess
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27. Which of the following is NOT a cause of excessive drooling?
A) Lack of awareness of saliva build-up
B) Infrequent swallowing
C) Excessive saliva production
D) Increased awareness of mouth functions
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28. What is sialorrhea characterized by?
A) Increased saliva production during meals
B) Drooling while sleeping
C) Secretion of drool in the resting state
D) Excessive swallowing
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29. How may salivary cysts develop?
A) By inhaling saliva into the lungs
B) Due to excessive drooling
C) When the walls of the ducts break under pressure
D) By sleeping on one’s side
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30. What may increase the risk of inhaling saliva into the lungs?
A) Lack of awareness of saliva build-up
B) Excessive drooling
C) Trauma to the salivary ducts
D) Sleeping on one’s side
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31. How can drooling due to teething be managed?
A) Increased frequency of swallowing
B) Avoidance of cold objects
C) Good oral hygiene and cold objects
D) Increased awareness of mouth functions
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32. What may lead to obstruction in salivary ducts?
A) Increased swallowing skill
B) Thickened fluid due to inflammation
C) Sleeping on one’s side
D) Excessive saliva production
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33. What is a potential complication of drooling for some individuals?
A) Trauma to the salivary ducts
B) Inhaling saliva into the lungs
C) Increased awareness of mouth functions
D) Excessive production of saliva
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34. What may cause the closure of salivary ducts similar to pinching a garden hose?
A) Excessive drooling
B) Abscess or tumor in the area
C) Trauma to the ducts
D) Increased swallowing skill
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35. What can be helpful in managing drooling due to teething?
A) Increased awareness of mouth functions
B) Good oral hygiene and cold objects
C) Avoidance of swallowing
D) Sleeping on one’s side
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36. What contributes to sialorrhea during the resting state?
A) Increased swallowing frequency
B) Excessive saliva production during meals
C) Sleeping on one’s side
D) Open-mouth posture from CNS depressants
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37. What is a common reason for excessive drooling in children with neurological disorders?
A) Increased awareness of mouth functions
B) Lack of awareness of saliva build-up
C) Trauma to the salivary ducts
D) Sleeping on one’s side
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38. What is a treatment approach for excessive drooling related to inefficient swallowing?
A) Increased swallowing skill
B) Avoidance of cold objects
C) Excessive drooling
D) Good oral hygiene
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Pathology Of Cardiovascular System
1. What is the approximate size of the human heart?
a) 10cm long and 7cm wide
b) 14cm long and 9cm wide
c) 20cm long and 15cm wide
d) 8cm long and 5cm wide
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2. Which layer of the heart is composed of cardiac muscle?
a) Epicardium
b) Myocardium
c) Endocardium
d) Pericardium
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3. What is the function of Purkinje fibers in the heart?
a) Conduction of cardiac impulses
b) Oxygenation of blood
c) Regulation of blood pressure
d) Formation of connective tissue
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4. Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the pulmonary veins?
a) Right atrium
b) Left atrium
c) Right ventricle
d) Left ventricle
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5. What is the primary function of the pulmonary circuit?
a) To supply the entire body with oxygenated blood
b) To receive blood returning to the heart from the body
c) To transport blood to and from the lungs for oxygenation
d) To regulate blood pressure in the heart
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6. What is the term for the state in which the heart is no longer able to compensate for increased demands?
a) Compensation
b) Decompensation
c) Hypertrophy
d) Aneurysm
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7. What is the main factor responsible for impaired cardiac contraction?
a) Alteration in venous return
b) Increased resistance of outflow
c) Coronary vascular insufficiency
d) Hypertrophy of the ventricles
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8. Which developmental anomaly results in hypertrophy of the right ventricle?
a) Patency of foramen ovale
b) Interventricular foramen
c) Patent ductus arteriosus
d) Persistence of the right aortic arch
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9. What is the term for the narrowing of the lumen of the aorta?
a) Coarctation of the aorta
b) Transposition of the aorta
c) Congenital aneurysm
d) Sub-aortic stenosis
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10. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of the pericardium?
a) Hydropericardium
b) Hemopericardium
c) Pneumopericardium
d) Pericarditis
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11. What causes hypertrophy of the left ventricle in cases of aortic valve lesions?
a) Increased resistance of outflow
b) Insufficiency of mitral valves
c) Stenosis of aortic valves
d) Chronic interstitial pneumonia
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12. Which condition may lead to cardiac failure due to impaired cardiac contraction?
a) Myocarditis
b) Endocardial fibro-elastosis
c) Hypertrophy of the ventricles
d) Congenital aneurysm
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13. What is the primary cause of infarction in the heart?
a) Bacterial infections
b) Obstruction of coronary arteries
c) Trauma to the pericardium
d) Hypertrophy of the ventricles
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14. Which type of pericarditis is characterized by the presence of pus in the pericardium?
a) Fibrinous pericarditis
b) Suppurative pericarditis
c) Uric acid pericarditis
d) Tubercular pericarditis
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15. What is the term for the accumulation of blood in the pericardial sac?
a) Hydropericardium
b) Hemopericardium
c) Pneumopericardium
d) Pyopericardium
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16. Which condition results from a persistent right aortic arch?
a) Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
b) Cyanosis in animals
c) Dilatation of the esophagus
d) A systolic murmur
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17. What is the term for the condition in which the heart is found outside the thorax?
a) Ectopia cardis
b) Acardia
c) Diplocardia
d) Cardiac aneurysm
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18. What developmental anomaly results in the presence of two hearts?
a) Ectopia cardis
b) Acardia
c) Diplocardia
d) Patent ductus arteriosus
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19. Which condition is characterized by dilation of the aorta or pulmonary artery?
a) Coarctation of the aorta
b) Transposition of the aorta
c) Congenital aneurysm
d) Sub-aortic stenosis
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20. What is the primary cause of myocardial infarction?
a) Coronary vascular insufficiency
b) Hypertrophy of the ventricles
c) Suppurative pericarditis
d) Patent ductus arteriosus
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21. Which type of pericarditis is caused by specific inflammation or tuberculosis?
a) Fibrinous pericarditis
b) Suppurative pericarditis
c) Uric acid pericarditis
d) Tubercular pericarditis
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22. What is the term for the thickening of the endocardium due to an increase in elastic fibers?
a) Endocardial fibro-elastosis
b) Cardiac aneurysm
c) Diplocardia
d) Acardia
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23. Which condition results in gas accumulation in the pericardium?
a) Hydropericardium
b) Hemopericardium
c) Pneumopericardium
d) Pyopericardium
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24. What is the term for the narrowing of the lumen of the aorta?
a) Coarctation of the aorta
b) Transposition of the aorta
c) Congenital aneurysm
d) Sub-aortic stenosis
View Answer
25. Which type of pericarditis is characterized by excess serous fluid in the pericardial sac?
a) Fibrinous pericarditis
b) Suppurative pericarditis
c) Uric acid pericarditis
d) Hydropericardium
View Answer
26. Which of the following is a common cause of petechial hemorrhages under the epicardium in cattle and sheep?
A) Hypertension
B) Septicemia
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Atherosclerosis
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27. What is the characteristic appearance of lesions in non-suppurative myocarditis?
A) Yellowish discoloration
B) Grayish areas
C) Red spots
D) Black patches
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28. Which virus is associated with encephalomyocarditis virus-induced cardiomyopathy and myocarditis?
A) Influenza virus
B) Coronavirus
C) Encephalomyocarditis virus
D) HIV
View Answer
29. What is the microscopic appearance of acute suppurative myocarditis?
A) Presence of granulation tissue
B) Abscesses with hyperemic borders
C) Fibrosis of muscle fibers
D) Infiltration of eosinophils
View Answer
30. Tubercular myocarditis can occur due to:
A) Direct trauma to the heart
B) Hematogenous spread
C) Lung infection
D) Atherosclerosis
View Answer
31. Which chamber and valves are commonly affected in endocarditis?
A) Left atrium and mitral valve
B) Right ventricle and tricuspid valve
C) All chambers and valves
D) Valvular endocardium only
View Answer
32. What is a characteristic feature of arteriosclerosis in animals?
A) Intimal thickening
B) Proliferation of smooth muscle cells
C) Calcification of arteries
D) Hyaline degeneration
View Answer
33. Which of the following is a significant risk factor for atherosclerosis in animals?
A) Low cholesterol diet
B) Smoking
C) Hypertension
D) Diabetes
View Answer
34. What is the main factor involved in the formation of an aneurysm?
A) Inflammation of the vessel wall
B) Proliferation of smooth muscle cells
C) Weakening of the vessel wall
D) Thrombosis
View Answer
35. What is the main cause of acute arteritis in horses?
A) Bacterial infection
B) Viral infection
C) Fungal infection
D) Parasitic infection
View Answer
36. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of veins and may lead to thrombophlebitis?
A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Arteritis
C) Endocarditis
D) Phlebitis
View Answer
37. What is the likely cause of phlebitis in newborn animals?
A) High cholesterol diet
B) Hypertension
C) Umbilical infection
D) Hypothyroidism
View Answer
38. In which condition do infected thrombi lead to the formation of septic emboli?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Endocarditis
C) Arteriosclerosis
D) Phlebitis
View Answer
39. Which disease is characterized by compensatory hypertrophy of artery walls in response to increased blood pressure?
A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Arteritis
C) Hypertrophy
D) Atherosclerosis
View Answer
40. What is the typical appearance of a thrombus in chronic phlebitis?
A) Soft and mushy
B) Calcified
C) Grayish discoloration
D) Yellowish hue
View Answer
41. How does Equine Viral Arteritis primarily manifest in horses?
A) Fever and respiratory distress
B) Joint inflammation
C) Skin lesions
D) Renal failure
View Answer
42. What is the main cause of chronic arteritis in horses?
A) Bacterial infection
B) Fungal infection
C) Parasitic infection
D) Viral infection
View Answer
43. What is the primary route of transmission for acute arteritis in horses?
A) Inhalation
B) Ingestion
C) Contact with infected animals
D) Vector-borne
View Answer
44. Which condition is characterized by the formation of vegetation on heart valves?
A) Aneurysm
B) Endocarditis
C) Myocarditis
D) Arteritis
View Answer
45. What is the main factor contributing to the formation of atherosclerosis?
A) Proliferation of smooth muscle cells
B) Inflammation of vessel walls
C) High cholesterol diet
D) Thrombosis
View Answer
46. Which artery is commonly affected by chronic irritation caused by Strongylus vulgaris in horses?
A) Renal artery
B) Aorta
C) Anterior mesenteric artery
D) Coronary artery
View Answer
47. How does thrombosis lead to complications such as pulmonary embolism?
A) By causing inflammation of vessel walls
B) By obstructing blood flow
C) By weakening the vessel wall
D) By promoting bacterial growth
View Answer
48. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of the wall of arteries?
A) Endocarditis
B) Aneurysm
C) Arteritis
D) Phlebitis
View Answer
49. What is the main route of infection for phlebitis caused by foreign bodies?
A) Inhalation
B) Ingestion
C) Direct contact
D) Trauma
View Answer
50. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of the endocardium?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Phlebitis
C) Endocarditis
D) Arteriosclerosis
View Answer
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Pathology Of Respiratory System
1. Which of the following is the main function of the respiratory system?
a) Exchange of nutrients and waste products
b) Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
c) Pumping blood throughout the body
d) Regulation of body temperature
View Answer
2. What is a common developmental abnormality affecting newborn animals, resulting in an abnormal connection between the nasal cavity and mouth?
a) Epistaxis
b) Bronchiectasis
c) Cleft palate
d) Laryngitis
View Answer
3. What is the cause of epistaxis in animals?
a) Excessive barking
b) Mechanical injury
c) Tuberculosis
d) All of the above
View Answer
4. Which infectious disease can lead to acute rhinitis or coryza in animals?
a) Distemper
b) Anthrax
c) Tuberculosis
d) All of the above
View Answer
5. What is the microscopic appearance associated with rhinitis?
a) Hyperplasia
b) Hypertrophy
c) Hyperemia and inflammation exudate
d) Fibrosis
View Answer
6. Laryngitis is usually an extension of infection from which area?
a) Lungs
b) Stomach
c) Nasal cavity or pharynx
d) Intestines
View Answer
7. What is the characteristic gross appearance of laryngitis?
a) Dry lesion with hemorrhage
b) Coated with mucoid exudate
c) Fibrinous deposits
d) All of the above
View Answer
8. Which condition results in the narrowing of bronchial lumen?
a) Bronchiectasis
b) Bronchostenosis
c) Laryngitis
d) Epistaxis
View Answer
9. What may cause bronchiectasis?
a) Congenital conditions
b) Infections
c) Bronchial obstruction
d) All of the above
View Answer
10. Which type of bronchiectasis involves outpouching of the bronchial wall due to localized necrotizing foci?
a) Saccular form
b) Cylindrical variety
c) Tubular form
d) Rounded form
View Answer
11. What histological findings are associated with bronchiectasis?
a) Intense acute inflammation
b) Squamous metaplasia
c) Fibrosis
d) All of the above
View Answer
12. What does leukoplakia refer to in the respiratory system?
a) Swelling of the larynx
b) White lesion of the oral mucosa
c) Dilation of bronchi
d) Absence of mucus discharge
View Answer
13. Which condition results from chronic necrotizing infection leading to permanent dilation of bronchi?
a) Laryngitis
b) Bronchostenosis
c) Bronchiectasis
d) Epistaxis
View Answer
14. What is the cause of croupous or membranous laryngitis?
a) Excessive barking
b) Infection
c) Tuberculosis
d) Mechanical injury
View Answer
15. What is a characteristic feature of chronic laryngitis?
a) Dry lesion with hemorrhage
b) Swelling of the larynx
c) Coated with mucoid exudate
d) Formation of greyish fibrinous deposits
View Answer
16. How does bronchiectasis affect the bronchial wall?
a) Thickens it
b) Weakens it
c) Narrows it
d) Dilates it
View Answer
17. What is the cause of epistaxis in animals?
a) Infection
b) Trauma
c) Tumor
d) All of the above
View Answer
18. What is the main cause of leukoplakia in the mouth?
a) Mechanical injury
b) Infection
c) Excessive barking
d) None of the above
View Answer
19. Which type of bronchiectasis involves uniform dilation of the bronchi?
a) Saccular form
b) Cylindrical variety
c) Tubular form
d) Rounded form
View Answer
20. What is the characteristic gross appearance of acute rhinitis?
a) Dry lesion with hemorrhage
b) Coated with mucoid exudate
c) Fibrinous deposits
d) Swelling and congestion
View Answer
21. What condition results from the compression of the jugular vein by too tight collars in working horses?
a) Epistaxis
b) Bronchostenosis
c) Asphyxia
d) None of the above
View Answer
22. Which type of bronchiectasis results from localized necrotizing foci in bronchitis?
a) Saccular form
b) Cylindrical variety
c) Tubular form
d) Rounded form
View Answer
23. What condition may develop in association with bronchiectasis due to better control of lung infections?
a) Laryngitis
b) Epistaxis
c) Bronchostenosis
d) None of the above
View Answer
24. What causes the main dilation of bronchi and bronchioles in bronchiectasis?
a) Chronic necrotizing infection
b) Mechanical injury
c) Chemical irritants
d) Excessive barking
View Answer
25. What are the possible causes of bronchial obstruction leading to bronchiectasis?
a) Tumor
b) Mucus impaction
c) Foreign body
d) All of the above
View Answer
26. What structural changes occur initially in bronchiectasis?
a) Destruction of cartilage
b) Exudate accumulation
c) Loss of elastic tissue contractile power
d) Dilation of bronchus
View Answer
27. Which of the following is a consequence of chronic pneumonia in bronchiectasis?
a) Bronchial wall widening
b) Fibrous tissue contraction
c) Bronchial obstruction
d) Atelectasis
View Answer
28. How does bronchostenosis lead to bronchial dilation?
a) Air accumulation during expiration
b) Obstruction of bronchi below the level of obstruction
c) Absence of exudate accumulation
d) Positive pressure on the pleural cavity
View Answer
29. What happens when bronchi are completely closed in bronchiectasis?
a) Atelectasis
b) Exudate accumulation
c) Elastic pull on bronchial wall
d) Positive pressure on pleural cavity
View Answer
30. Which investigative technique is NOT used for diagnosing bronchiectasis?
a) Chest x-ray
b) CT scan
c) Blood glucose test
d) Sputum culture
View Answer
31. Which disease is commonly associated with bronchiectasis?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Malaria
c) Dengue fever
d) Yellow fever
View Answer
32. What is the prognosis of bronchiectasis?
a) Acute and favorable
b) Chronic and favorable
c) Chronic and unfavorable
d) Acute and unfavorable
View Answer
33. What is a characteristic feature of atelectasis?
a) Alveolar over-inflation
b) Failure of alveoli to open
c) Accumulation of exudate in alveoli
d) Destruction of lung tissue
View Answer
34. Which type of atelectasis occurs due to fibrotic changes in the lungs?
a) Absorption atelectasis
b) Compression atelectasis
c) Contraction or cicatrization atelectasis
d) Pleural-based atelectasis
View Answer
35. How does a large pleural-based lung mass cause atelectasis?
a) By increasing lung volumes
b) By decreasing lung volumes
c) By promoting alveolar over-inflation
d) By preventing alveolar collapse
View Answer
36. What causes Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection?
a) Through blood transfusion
b) Through contact with infected animals
c) Through ingestion of contaminated food
d) Through saliva
View Answer
37. What is a common consequence of EBV infection?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Bronchiectasis
c) Infectious mononucleosis
d) Pneumonia
View Answer
38. What is the characteristic gross appearance of affected lung tissue in bronchiectasis?
a) Dark or reddish blue and elevated
b) Pale and depressed
c) Dark or reddish blue and depressed
d) Pale and elevated
View Answer
39. Which condition leads to the absence of air in alveoli?
a) Emphysema
b) Atelectasis
c) Bronchitis
d) Pneumonia
View Answer
40. What happens to alveolar capillaries in atelectasis?
a) They dilate and engorge with blood
b) They collapse and shrink
c) They become permeable to air
d) They secrete mucus
View Answer
41. What causes the lungs to become dark and darkish blue in color in atelectasis?
a) Dilatation of alveolar capillaries
b) Accumulation of mucus in alveoli
c) Presence of air in alveoli
d) Contraction of bronchioles
View Answer
42. What is a characteristic feature of emphysema?
a) Decreased air in the lungs
b) Reduced alveolar size
c) Over-inflation of alveoli
d) Normal lung tissue
View Answer
43. Which group of diseases does emphysema belong to?
a) Cardiovascular diseases
b) Gastrointestinal diseases
c) Pulmonary diseases
d) Neurological diseases
View Answer
44. Which type of emphysema primarily involves the upper lobes of the lungs?
a) Centrilobular (centriacinar)
b) Panlobular (panacinar)
c) Acute alveolar emphysema
d) Chronic obstructive emphysema
View Answer
45. What happens in acute alveolar emphysema?
a) Alveolar collapse
b) Alveolar rupture forming vesicles
c) Alveolar fibrosis
d) Alveolar shrinkage
View Answer
46. What is the primary cause of bronchiectasis?
a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
b) Asthma
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Lung cancer
View Answer
47. How does compression contribute to bronchiectasis?
a) By increasing bronchial diameter
b) By decreasing bronchial diameter
c) By obstructing bronchial lumen
d) By stimulating bronchial contraction
View Answer
48. Which type of emphysema involves all lung fields, particularly the bases?
a) Centrilobular (centriacinar)
b) Panlobular (panacinar)
c) Chronic obstructive emphysema
d) Acute alveolar emphysema
View Answer
49. What is the outcome of compression atelectasis?
a) Decreased lung volumes
b) Increased lung volumes
c) Bronchial dilation
d) Alveolar rupture
View Answer
50. Which layer of the pleura wraps around the lungs?
a) Visceral pleura
b) Parietal pleura
c) Mediastinal pleura
d) Diaphragmatic pleura
View Answer
51. Which of the following is a cause of acute alveolar emphysema?
A. Compensatory dilation of healthy lung parts
B. Feeding on lush pasture
C. Allergic reaction to toxic agents
D. Rupture of alveoli due to over exertion
View Answer
52. What is a characteristic feature of acute interstitial emphysema?
A. Collection of air in the alveoli
B. Infection of the pleura
C. Air accumulation in the interlobular space
D. Expansion of the bronchioles
View Answer
53. What is a common cause of chronic alveolar emphysema in horses?
A. Overexertion during heavy meals
B. Allergy to pollen dust
C. Obstruction of the bronchi
D. Dusty and moldy food
View Answer
54. Which condition is characterized by the expansion of the chest cavity due to pneumonia or atelectasis?
A. Acute alveolar emphysema
B. Chronic alveolar emphysema
C. Acute interstitial emphysema
D. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
View Answer
55. What distinguishes pneumonitis from pneumonia?
A. Lumen involvement in pneumonitis and wall involvement in pneumonia
B. Presence of exudate in pneumonitis and absence in pneumonia
C. Localization in the bronchioles for pneumonitis and alveoli for pneumonia
D. Chronic nature of pneumonitis and acute nature of pneumonia
View Answer
56. Which is a specific type of pneumonia characterized by fibrinous exudate in the alveoli?
A. Lobar pneumonia
B. Bronchopneumonia
C. Catarrhal pneumonia
D. Lobular pneumonia
View Answer
57. What is the most common route of transmission for bronchogenous infections causing pneumonia?
A. Through the circulatory system
B. Through penetrating wounds
C. Inhalation through the respiratory passage
D. Ingestion of contaminated food
View Answer
58. Which microbial agent is NOT commonly associated with causing pneumonia?
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
View Answer
59. What is a common cause of pulmonary interstitial emphysema in premature infants?
A. Mechanical ventilation
B. Allergic reaction
C. Bacterial infection
D. Viral infection
View Answer
60. In chronic alveolar emphysema, what happens to the lungs microscopically?
A. Alveoli become constricted
B. Alveoli become inflamed
C. Alveoli become over distended
D. Alveoli become collapsed
View Answer
61. What condition is characterized by the escape of air into the pulmonary interstitium and venous circulation?
A. Acute alveolar emphysema
B. Chronic alveolar emphysema
C. Acute interstitial emphysema
D. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
View Answer
62. Which route of transmission involves foreign bodies penetrating the lungs?
A. Bronchogenous
B. Hematogenous
C. Penetrating wounds
D. Ingestion
View Answer
63. What is a common cause of acute alveolar emphysema in animals?
A. Compensatory dilation
B. Allergic reaction to mold
C. Inhalation of hot air
D. Pneumonia
View Answer
64. What distinguishes lobular pneumonia from lobar pneumonia?
A. Involvement of entire lobes in lobular pneumonia
B. Presence of catarrhal exudate in lobular pneumonia
C. Fibrinous exudate in lobar pneumonia
D. Chronic nature of lobular pneumonia
View Answer
65. What condition is characterized by the escape of air into the interstitial tissue of the lungs?
A. Acute alveolar emphysema
B. Chronic alveolar emphysema
C. Acute interstitial emphysema
D. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
View Answer
66. Which condition is commonly known as “broken wind” in horses?
A. Acute alveolar emphysema
B. Chronic alveolar emphysema
C. Acute interstitial emphysema
D. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
View Answer
67. What is the primary cause of acute interstitial emphysema in premature infants?
A. Dyspnoea
B. Pulmonary strongylosis
C. Mechanical ventilation
D. Allergic reaction
View Answer
68. What distinguishes chronic alveolar emphysema in horses from acute forms?
A. Onset after heavy meal
B. Presence of moldy food
C. Continuous coughing
D. Volume and color of lungs
View Answer
69. Which type of pneumonia is characterized by infection through the circulatory system?
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Lobar pneumonia
C. Viral pneumonia
D. Hematogenous pneumonia
View Answer
70. What is the primary cause of pneumonitis in animals?
A. Compensatory dilation
B. Microbial agents
C. Inhalation of irritants
D. Dusty and moldy food
View Answer
71. Which condition involves the escape of air into the subcutis of the neck in severe cases?
A. Acute alveolar emphysema
B. Chronic alveolar emphysema
C. Acute interstitial emphysema
D. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
View Answer
72. What is a characteristic feature of lobular pneumonia in animals?
A. Fibrinous exudate in the alveoli
B. Involvement of entire lobes
C. Catarrhal exudate in the alveoli
D. Chronic nature of the disease
View Answer
73. What is the primary route of transmission for bronchogenous pneumonia?
A. Inhalation through the respiratory passage
B. Penetrating wounds
C. Ingestion of contaminated food
D. Hematogenous spread
View Answer
74. What distinguishes acute interstitial emphysema from acute alveolar emphysema?
A. Presence of air in interlobular space
B. Rupture of alveoli
C. Accumulation of air in subcutis
D. Volume and color of lungs
View Answer
75. What is a common cause of chronic alveolar emphysema in working horses?
A. Dusty and moldy food
B. Obstruction of the bronchi
C. Overexertion during heavy meals
D. Allergy to pollen dust
View Answer
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Pathology Of The Urinary System
1. What is the primary function of the urinary system?
a) Regulating blood pH
b) Maintaining electrolyte levels
c) Eliminating metabolic wastes
d) Controlling blood volume
View Answer
2. Which structure in the urinary system is responsible for storing urine?
a) Kidneys
b) Ureters
c) Bladder
d) Urethra
View Answer
3. What is the purpose of the nephrons in the kidneys?
a) Storing urine
b) Filtering blood
c) Producing electrolytes
d) Controlling blood pressure
View Answer
4. What is the role of ureters in the urinary system?
a) Filtration of blood
b) Reabsorption of water
c) Propelling urine towards the bladder
d) Controlling blood pH
View Answer
5. What factor affects urine production by interfering with blood flow in the glomeruli?
a) Low blood pressure
b) Obstruction in the urethra
c) Increased electrolyte levels
d) Excessive fluid intake
View Answer
6. Which condition results in the reduction of urine formation due to increased viscosity and osmotic pressure of blood?
a) Hemoconcentration
b) Obstruction in the urinary passage
c) Injury to the glomerular filter
d) Fibrosis of the renal capsule
View Answer
7. What is a consequence of injury to the glomerular filter?
a) Increased urine formation
b) Selective reabsorption of substances
c) Facilitation of larger protein molecules into the filtrate
d) Enhancement of tubular functions
View Answer
8. Which anomaly of development results from the fusion of kidneys at the posterior poles?
a) Agenesis
b) Hypoplasia
c) Horse-shoe kidney
d) Persistent lobulation
View Answer
9. What does proteinuria indicate?
a) Increased permeability of glomerular capillaries
b) Reduced blood pressure
c) Enhanced tubular functions
d) Improved renal circulation
View Answer
10. Which condition is characterized by the presence of glucose in urine?
a) Proteinuria
b) Glycosuria
c) Ketonuria
d) Anuria
View Answer
11. In which condition is ketonuria commonly observed?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Hypoproteinemia
c) Generalized edema
d) Congestive heart failure
View Answer
12. What is the primary function of the renal arteries?
a) Filtration of blood
b) Reabsorption of electrolytes
c) Providing blood supply to the kidneys
d) Maintaining blood pH
View Answer
13. Which factor is crucial in the maintenance of countercurrent exchange in the renal medulla?
a) Increased blood flow rate
b) Decreased blood osmolarity
c) Slow rate of blood flow in the arteriae rectae
d) Expansion of the glomerular capillaries
View Answer
14. What is the consequence of injury to the tubules in the kidneys?
a) Selective reabsorption of essential substances
b) Increased urine formation
c) Blockage of tubules leading to anuria
d) Reduction in blood volume
View Answer
15. What is the function of the urethra in the urinary system?
a) Storing urine
b) Filtering blood
c) Propelling urine out of the body
d) Reabsorbing water
View Answer
16. Which condition results from the obstruction in the outflow of urine?
a) Proteinuria
b) Glycosuria
c) Anuria
d) Ketonuria
View Answer
17. What causes the formation of cysts in the kidneys?
a) Increased blood pressure
b) Chronic interstitial nephritis
c) Reduced urine production
d) Enhanced tubular functions
View Answer
18. What is the consequence of low blood pressure on urine formation?
a) Increased urine production
b) Complete stoppage of urine formation
c) Selective reabsorption of essential substances
d) Expansion of glomerular capillaries
View Answer
19. What role does the efferent arteriole play in the kidneys?
a) Carrying blood away from the glomerulus
b) Filtering blood in the glomerulus
c) Facilitating countercurrent exchange
d) Providing blood supply to the tubules
View Answer
20. Which condition results from the reduction in tubular function?
a) Increased urine formation
b) Fibrosis of the renal capsule
c) Enhanced blood flow to the tubules
d) Decreased blood and oxygen supply to the tubules
View Answer
21. What is the function of the vasa recta in the kidneys?
a) Facilitating urine formation
b) Reabsorbing glucose
c) Facilitating countercurrent exchange
d) Secreting electrolytes
View Answer
22. Which condition results from injury to the glomerular filter?
a) Increased permeability of glomerular capillaries
b) Enhanced tubular functions
c) Expansion of glomerular capillaries
d) Facilitation of urine formation
View Answer
23. What is the consequence of injury to the tubules in the kidneys?
a) Selective reabsorption of essential substances
b) Increased urine formation
c) Blockage of tubules leading to anuria
d) Reduction in blood volume
View Answer
24. What anomaly of development results from the absence of one or both kidneys?
a) Persistent lobulation
b) Agenesis
c) Duplication of one kidney
d) Horse-shoe kidney
View Answer
25. What does the presence of various constituents in the urine indicate?
a) Enhanced kidney function
b) Improved blood circulation
c) Several pathological disorders
d Normal renal development
View Answer
26. What is the consequence of swelling of the capillary endothelium and infiltration of inflammatory cells in glomerulonephritis?
a) Increased blood flow through glomeruli
b) Compression of glomerular capillaries
c) Enhanced urine filtration
d) Decreased urine production
View Answer
27. Cloudy swelling and fatty degeneration of tubular epithelium can lead to:
a) Increased kidney expansion
b) Decreased pressure within the kidney
c) Compression of blood vessels
d) Improved urine filtration
View Answer
28. Stagnation of secreted urine can result in:
a) Increased filtration pressure
b) Expansion of the kidney
c) Back pressure opposing filtration pressure
d) Facilitation of urine formation
View Answer
29. What condition arises due to diffusion of urine filtered by the glomerulus into lymphatics and veins?
a) Pyuria
b) Hematuria
c) Hemoglobinuria
d) Uremia
View Answer
30. What is the characteristic color of urine in hemoglobinuria?
a) Red
b) Brown or coffee colored
c) Yellow
d) Clear
View Answer
31. Uremia is associated with:
a) Excessive urine production
b) Renal insufficiency
c) Increased protein intake
d) Acidosis
View Answer
32. Which condition is characterized by the deposition of calcium salts in the renal parenchyma?
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Nephrocalcinosis
d) Hematuria
View Answer
33. Dystrophic calcification primarily affects which cells of the tubules?
a) Endothelial cells
b) Epithelial cells
c) Smooth muscle cells
d) Fibroblasts
View Answer
34. What causes the precipitation of calcium in the urine, leading to calcium casts?
a) Low calcium intake
b) High protein intake
c) Concentrated urine
d) Excessive water intake
View Answer
35. Deposition of calcium in the interstitial tissue is commonly observed in:
a) Young cats
b) Older dogs
c) Adolescent horses
d) Senior cows
View Answer
36. What type of nephritis arises from the hematogenous spread of pyogenic organisms?
a) Pyelonephritis
b) Glomerulonephritis
c) Tubular nephritis
d) Pyaemic nephritis
View Answer
37. Which organism commonly causes pyaemic nephritis in cattle?
a) Corynebacterium pyogenes
b) Shigella
c) Streptococcus
d) Staphylococcus
View Answer
38. In pyaemic nephritis, bacteria may reach the kidney through:
a) Digestive system
b) Respiratory system
c) Cardiovascular system
d) Lymphatic system
View Answer
39. What can form abscesses in pyaemic nephritis when arrested in glomeruli or intertubular capillaries?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Bacteria
c) Leukocytes
d) Platelets
View Answer
40. Which type of calcification primarily affects the basement membrane of tubules?
a) Dystrophic calcification
b) Metastatic calcification
c) Idiopathic calcification
d) Dystrophic calcification
View Answer
41. What condition leads to the formation of calcium casts in the urine?
a) Tubular necrosis
b) Glomerular injury
c) Interstitial inflammation
d) Vascular congestion
View Answer
42. What is the characteristic feature of dystrophic calcification in nephrocalcinosis?
a) Red streaks or spots
b) White streaks or spots
c) Blue streaks or spots
d) Green streaks or spots
View Answer
43. What is the main factor contributing to uremia?
a) Increased protein intake
b) Renal insufficiency
c) Low blood pressure
d) Acidosis
View Answer
44. Hemoglobinuria is associated with the presence of:
a) Pus in urine
b) Blood in urine
c) Hemoglobin in urine
d) Urea in urine
View Answer
45. What is the primary cause of nephrocalcinosis?
a) Hyperparathyroidism
b) Hypoparathyroidism
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Hypothyroidism
View Answer
46. Which condition leads to the formation of brown or coffee-colored urine?
a) Pyuria
b) Hematuria
c) Hemoglobinuria
d) Uremia
View Answer
47. How does cloudy swelling and fatty degeneration of tubular epithelium affect kidney pressure?
a) Decreases pressure within the kidney
b) Increases pressure within the kidney
c) Does not affect kidney pressure
d) Facilitates urine filtration
View Answer
48. Which type of nephritis results from the hematogenous spread of pyogenic organisms?
a) Tubular nephritis
b) Glomerulonephritis
c) Pyelonephritis
d) Interstitial nephritis
View Answer
49. What is the characteristic feature of urine in hematuria?
a) Cloudy appearance
b) Brown or coffee-colored appearance
c) Red appearance
d) Yellow appearance
View Answer
50. What is the main cause of uremia?
a) Excessive protein intake
b) Renal insufficiency
c) Low blood pressure
d) Alkalosis
View Answer
51. What is the characteristic macroscopic appearance of suppurative nephritis involving the kidney?
a) Numerous tiny abscesses studding the kidney
b) Circular abscesses in the cortex and elongated abscesses in the medulla
c) Circular abscesses in the medulla and elongated abscesses in the cortex
d) Abscesses of varying sizes distributed throughout the kidney
View Answer
52. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of all parts of the kidney, including the pelvis and parenchyma?
a) Pyelonephritis urinogenic- ascending
b) Cystitis
c) Urolithiasis
d) Enzootic Hematuria
View Answer
53. What is the most common predisposing factor for ascending urinary tract infections in animals?
a) Pervious urachus
b) Kinking of ureters
c) Anomalies of the urinary system
d) Stasis of urine
View Answer
54. Which of the following is not a possible cause of cystitis?
a) Trauma associated with retention of urine
b) Expansion from neighboring organs
c) Pervious urachus in foals and calves
d) High oxalic acid content in food
View Answer
55. Which type of cystitis is characterized by the presence of fibrin flakes in urine?
a) Acute catarrhal cystitis
b) Hemorrhagic cystitis
c) Purulent cystitis
d) Fibrinous cystitis
View Answer
56. What is the microscopic hallmark of chronic catarrhal cystitis?
a) Epithelial proliferation
b) Leukocytic infiltration
c) Fibrosis of the bladder wall
d) Presence of lymphocytic nodules
View Answer
57. What is the most common cause of urethritis in animals?
a) Bacterial infection
b) Trauma
c) Obstruction by calculi
d) Expansion from neighboring organs
View Answer
58. Which anomaly involves the persistence of the tube connecting the bladder to the umbilicus after birth?
a) Urachus
b) Diverticula
c) Rupture of the bladder
d) Perineal herniation of the bladder
View Answer
59. What is the most common cause of bladder rupture?
a) Trauma due to automobile accidents
b) Faulty catheterization
c) Obstruction of the urethra by calculi
d) Enlargement of the prostate
View Answer
60. Which animal is most susceptible to bovine enzootic hematuria?
a) Cattle
b) Sheep
c) Pigs
d) Horses
View Answer
61. What is urolithiasis?
a) Inflammation of the bladder
b) Presence of calculi in the urinary system
c) Chronic cystitis
d) Hematuria in cattle
View Answer
62. What governs the chemical composition of urinary calculi in different species of animals?
a) pH of the urine
b) Presence of bacteria
c) Dietary habits
d) Size of the animal
View Answer
63. What is the most common chemical composition of urinary calculi in herbivores with alkaline urine?
a) Oxalates and urates
b) Carbonates and phosphates
c) Xanthine and cystine
d) Silicates and sulfates
View Answer
64. Which condition may result from the presence of calculi at the sigmoid curve in male dogs?
a) Urethritis
b) Hematuria
c) Groove in the os-penis
d) Stricture of the urethra
View Answer
65. What is the primary cause of bovine enzootic hematuria?
a) Toxic plants
b) Bacterial infection
c) Parasitic infestation
d) Trauma
View Answer
66. What type of anomaly involves the division of the bladder into several cavities?
a) Urachus
b) Diverticula
c) Rupture of the bladder
d) Perineal herniation of the bladder
View Answer
67. Which condition may result from prolapse of the bladder into the vulva during parturition?
a) Necrosis of the bladder
b) Gangrene of the bladder
c) Hematuria
d) Cystitis
View Answer
68. Which of the following is not a potential cause of obstruction in the urethra?
a) Calculi
b) Prostate enlargement
c) Neoplasms of the urethra
d) Urinary tract infection
View Answer
69. Which organism is particularly associated with cystitis in cows and sows?
a) Streptococcus
b) Escherichia coli
c) Corynebacterium renale
d) Staphylococcus
View Answer
70. Which condition may result from the persistence of the urachus in foals and calves?
a) Pyelonephritis
b) Cystitis
c) Urethritis
d) Rupture of the bladder
View Answer
71. What is the characteristic macroscopic appearance of the bladder in chronic cystitis?
a) Thickened mucosa with petechiae
b) Red cauliflower-like tumor masses
c) Presence of blood in urine
d) Dilatation of the bladder
View Answer
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