Welcome to our MCQs Assessment series! In this post, we provide the link for downloading Veterinary Histology MCQs PDF Free Download to help you evaluate your understanding and mastery of veterinary histology. These questions are designed to cover key concepts and topics within the subject area, serving as an excellent resource for self-assessment and review.
Connective Tissue
1. Which tissue type provides a framework and support to the entire body?
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Nervous tissue
c) Connective tissue
d) Muscle tissue
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2. From which embryonic tissue does connective tissue arise?
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Epithelium
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2. From which embryonic tissue does connective tissue arise?
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Epithelium
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3. What is the primary function of connective tissue cells called fibroblasts?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Synthesis of collagen fibers
c) Contraction
d) Hormone secretion
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4. Which cell type is considered the stem tissue of all connective tissues in the body?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Myofibroblasts
c) Reticular cells
d) Mesenchymal cells
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5. What is the main structural component of connective tissues?
a) Ground substance
b) Fibers
c) Cells
d) Organs
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6. Which connective tissue cell type is responsible for secreting histamine and heparin?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Mast cells
c) Macrophages
d) Adipocytes
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7. Which cell type is unique to connective tissue proper and has a close relationship with collagen fibers?
a) Reticular cells
b) Adipocytes
c) Fibroblasts
d) Macrophages
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9. Which type of connective tissue cell is primarily involved in immune responses?
a) Fibrocytes
b) Adipocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Pericytes
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10. Which term describes the shape of the nucleus of fibroblasts?
a) Stellate
b) Fusiform
c) Spherical
d) Irregular
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11. What is the primary function of fibrocytes?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Synthesis of elastic fibers
c) Production of reticular fibers
d) Storage of fat
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12. Which cells store fat and are characterized by a narrow rim of cytoplasm and a flattened, eccentric nucleus?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Macrophages
c) Adipocytes
d) Mast cells
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13. Where are unilocular adipocytes primarily found?
a) Around the kidney
b) In lymphatic tissues
c) In the lungs
d) In the skin
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14. Which cells resemble fibroblasts but have contractile filaments similar to smooth muscle?
a) Pericytes
b) Mast cells
c) Plasma cells
d) Macrophages
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15. What is the primary function of pericytes?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Regulation of capillary blood flow
c) Production of collagen fibers
d) Storage of triglycerides
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16. Which connective tissue fibers are characterized by thin, small, branching fibers that allow stretch?
a) Collagen fibers
b) Reticular fibers
c) Elastic fibers
d) Network-forming fibers
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17. Where are mast cells primarily located within the body?
a) Loose connective tissue surrounding nerve endings
b) Bone marrow
c) Adipose tissue
d) Muscle tissue
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18. What is the distinguishing feature of plasma cells under electron microscopy?
a) Russell bodies
b) Eccentric nucleus
c) Basophilic cytoplasm
d) Cartwheel appearance
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19. What is the primary function of macrophages?
a) Synthesis of collagen fibers
b) Storage of triglycerides
c) Phagocytosis
d) Production of reticular fibers
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20. Where are pericytes typically located?
a) Adjacent to nerve endings
b) Lining the walls of the aorta
c) Adjacent to the endothelium lining capillaries
d) Within lymph nodes
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21. Which connective tissue cell exhibits metachromasia?
a) Macrophages
b) Mast cells
c) Adipocytes
d) Plasma cells
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22. What is the primary function of elastic fibers?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Regulation of capillary blood flow
c) Allowing stretch and recoil
d) Production of reticular fibers
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23. Where are multilocular adipocytes primarily found?
a) Around the kidney
b) In the lungs
c) In the skin
d) In the neck and upper chest
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24. What is the primary function of mast cells?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Production of collagen fibers
c) Regulation of capillary blood flow
d) Release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators
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25. Which cell type exhibits a cartwheel appearance under electron microscopy?
a) Plasma cells
b) Mast cells
c) Adipocytes
d) Macrophages
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26. Where are plasma cells primarily found within the body?
a) Lymphatic tissues
b) Loose connective tissue underlying the epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract
c) Around the kidney
d) In muscle tissue
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27. Which cells are most numerous in loose connective tissue and primarily function in phagocytosis?
a) Adipocytes
b) Reticular cells
c) Macrophages
d) Plasma cells
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28. Which connective tissue cell type has a centrally placed nucleus and is responsible for producing reticular fibers?
a) Mast cells
b) Pericytes
c) Fibrocytes
d) Reticular cells
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29. What is the primary function of adipocytes?
a) Production of collagen fibers
b) Phagocytosis
c) Storage of fat
d) Regulation of capillary blood flow
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30. Which type of adipocytes have a big lipid droplet and are characterized by a central nucleus?
a) Unilocular adipocytes
b) Multilocular adipocytes
c) Reticular cells
d) Macrophages
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31. Which connective tissue cell type exhibits a stellate cell shape?
a) Mast cells
b) Pericytes
c) Reticular cells
d) Fibrocytes
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32. Where are granular cells primarily located within the body?
a) Loose connective tissue surrounding nerve endings
b) Bone marrow
c) Adipose tissue
d) Muscle tissue
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33. What is the primary function of granular cells?
a) Production of collagen fibers
b) Phagocytosis
c) Regulation of capillary blood flow
d) Release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators
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34. Which connective tissue fiber type is characterized by branching and anastomosing fibers and is found in abundance in the lungs and large blood vessels?
a) Collagen fibers
b) Reticular fibers
c) Elastic fibers
d) Network-forming fibers
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35. What is the primary function of fibril-forming collagen?
a) Allowing stretch and recoil
b) Providing structural support and tensile strength
c) Phagocytosis
d) Regulation of capillary blood flow
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Histology Of Bone
1. Which type of bone cell is primarily responsible for active formation and mineralization of bone?
a) Osteocytes
b) Osteoblasts
c) Osteoclasts
d) Chondrocytes
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2. What is the main organic component of bone matrix?
a) Hydroxyapatite crystals
b) Collagen type 1
c) Osteocytes
d) Proteoglycans
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3. Which bone cell type has numerous long, slender processes and resides in lacunae?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Osteoclasts
c) Chondrocytes
d) Osteocytes
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4. What is the primary role of osteoclasts in bone?
a) Active formation of bone
b) Mineralization of bone
c) Resorption of bone
d) Maintenance of bone matrix
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5. What is the main inorganic component of bone?
a) Proteoglycans
b) Hydroxyapatite crystals
c) Collagen type 1
d) Osteoid
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6. Which part of a long bone contains the region of active bone growth?
a) Epiphysis
b) Metaphysis
c) Diaphysis
d) Periosteum
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7. What are the two layers surrounding a bone?
a) Periosteum and endosteum
b) Compact bone and spongy bone
c) Osteons and Haversian systems
d) Epiphysis and diaphysis
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8. Which type of bone is characterized by a dense, solid appearance?
a) Spongy bone
b) Cartilage
c) Compact bone
d) Endosteum
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9. What is the functional unit of compact bone?
a) Osteocytes
b) Osteons or Haversian systems
c) Hydroxyapatite crystals
d) Collagen type 1 fibers
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10. What structure contains blood vessels and nerves within compact bone?
a) Haversian or central canal
b) Volkmann’s or perforating canal
c) Cement line
d) Lacunae
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11. Which lamellae are located closest to the outer surface of compact bone?
a) Outer circumferential lamellae
b) Inner circumferential lamellae
c) Concentric lamellae
d) Interstitial lamellae
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12. What is the function of Volkmann’s or perforating canals?
a) Provide passageways for blood vessels and nerves
b) Store minerals for bone growth
c) House osteocytes
d) Form concentric lamellae
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13. Which bone cell type has a role in maintaining bone homeostasis throughout life?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Osteoclasts
d) Chondrocytes
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14. What type of bone tissue is characterized by a lattice-like structure filled with bone marrow?
a) Compact bone
b) Periosteum
c) Spongy bone
d) Endosteum
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15. Which bone cell type is responsible for the breakdown of bone tissue?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Osteoclasts
d) Chondrocytes
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16. What is the primary function of bone marrow within the medullary cavity?
A) Blood cell formation
B) Storage of minerals
C) Protection of internal organs
D) Production of adipose tissue
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17. Which part of the bone covers the ends known as epiphysis?
A) Periosteum
B) Articular cartilage
C) Endosteum
D) Sharpey’s fibers
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18. What structure is responsible for the longitudinal growth of bones during development?
A) Periosteum
B) Epiphyseal plate
C) Metaphysis
D) Endosteum
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19. Which type of bone tissue is characterized by a honeycomb-like structure filled with bone marrow?
A) Compact bone
B) Spongy bone
C) Periosteum
D) Endosteum
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20. What is the function of the periosteum?
A) Blood cell formation
B) Protection of internal organs
C) Sensory perception
D) Bone covering
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21. What is the primary function of compact bone?
A) Blood cell formation
B) Storage of adipose tissue
C) Protection and strength
D) Hematopoiesis
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22. Which part of the bone is responsible for the production of adipose tissue?
A) Periosteum
B) Endosteum
C) Medullary cavity
D) Epiphyseal plate
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23. What structures allow blood vessels and nerves to penetrate the periosteum?
A) Epiphyseal veins
B) Sharpey’s fibers
C) Periosteal arteries
D) Volkmann’s canals
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24. Which type of bone tissue forms the majority of long bones and provides weight-bearing support?
A) Spongy bone
B) Periosteum
C) Compact bone
D) Endosteum
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25. Where does the hematopoiesis primarily occur within bones?
A) Diaphysis
B) Epiphysis
C) Medullary cavity
D) Metaphysis
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26. Which type of bone tissue primarily consists of trabecular or spicules, with numerous spaces filled with bone marrow?
a) Compact bone
b) Spongy bone
c) Lamellar bone
d) Haversian bone
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27. What is the function of canaliculi in bone tissue?
a) To house osteocytes
b) To allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through
c) To store red and yellow bone marrow
d) To provide channels for nutrient exchange to osteocytes
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28. Which type of bone covering consists of an outer fibrous layer and an inner osteogenic layer?
a) Periosteum
b) Endosteum
c) Trabeculae
d) Lamellae
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29. Which shape of bone includes examples such as the humerus and femur?
a) Short bones
b) Flat bones
c) Long bones
d) Irregular bones
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30. What are the two main components of bone matrix?
a) Collagen and ground substance
b) Water and protein
c) Mineral salts and collagen
d) Ground substance and mineral salts
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31. Which cell type is derived from mesenchyme and serves as unspecialized stem cells in bone tissue?
a) Osteoprogenitor cells
b) Osteoblasts
c) Osteocytes
d) Osteoclasts
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32. Where are osteoprogenitor cells primarily found in bone tissue?
a) Within Haversian canals
b) In the outer layer of periosteum
c) Embedded within concentric lamellae
d) Inside lacunae
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33. Which bone tissue type primarily comprises short, flat, and irregular bones?
a) Compact bone
b) Lamellar bone
c) Spongy bone
d) Haversian bone
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34. What is the composition of organic (non-calcified) matrix in bone tissue?
a) Type I collagen + mineralized ground substance
b) Chondroitin sulfate + keratin sulfate
c) Hydroxyapatite
d) Calcium and phosphorus
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35. Which bone covering serves as the lining of marrow cavities and consists of a single layer of
osteoprogenitor cells?
a) Periosteum
b) Endosteum
c) Trabeculae
d) Lamellae
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36. What is the primary cellular function of osteoblasts?
a) Bone resorption
b) Nutrient exchange
c) Mitotic division
d) Collagen secretion
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37. Where are osteocytes typically found?
a) Within the bone matrix
b) On the surface of bones
c) In the bone marrow
d) Within the blood vessels
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38. Which type of cartilage is most abundant and provides flexibility?
a) Elastic cartilage
b) Fibrocartilage
c) Hyaline cartilage
d) Articular cartilage
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39. What is the primary function of chondrocytes?
a) Bone resorption
b) Collagen secretion
c) Cartilage production
d) Nutrient exchange
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40. Which bone formation process involves the replacement of cartilage by bone?
a) Intramembranous ossification
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Appositional growth
d) Ossification zone formation
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41. Which cells are responsible for bone resorption?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Osteoclasts
d) Chondrocytes
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42. In which zone of bone growth do chondrocytes undergo mitosis?
a) Reserve zone
b) Proliferation zone
c) Hypertrophy zone
d) Calcification zone
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43. Which bone growth process involves the addition of bone tissue to the surface?
a) Intramembranous ossification
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Appositional growth
d) Ossification zone formation
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44. What cells are responsible for adding bone tissue to the external surface of the diaphysis?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Osteoclasts
d) Chondrocytes
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45. How often is spongy bone typically replaced?
a) Every 3-4 months
b) Every 3-4 years
c) Every 5-6 years
d) Every 10 years
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46. What is the initial step in the healing process of a fracture?
a) Formation of a blood clot
b) Inflammatory response
c) Growth of blood capillaries
d) Activation of osteoclasts
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47. What cells are responsible for matrix destruction during bone remodeling?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Osteoclasts
d) Chondrocytes
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48. Which bone cells are involved in the repair of fractures?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Osteoclasts
d) Chondrocytes
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49. What type of cartilage resists strong compression and tension?
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Elastic cartilage
c) Fibrocartilage
d) Articular cartilage
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50. Which bone cells are derived from osteoblasts?
a) Osteocytes
b) Osteoclasts
c) Chondrocytes
d) Perichondrium cells
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51. What is the function of the extracellular matrix in cartilage?
a) Nutrient exchange
b) Collagen secretion
c) Support and flexibility
d) Cellular communication
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52. What is the primary tissue surrounding cartilage called?
a) Periosteum
b) Perichondrium
c) Endosteum
d) Epiphysis
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53. Which bone formation process occurs primarily in flat bones like the skull?
a) Intramembranous ossification
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Appositional growth
d) Ossification zone formation
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54. In which zone of bone growth does cartilage matrix become calcified?
a) Reserve zone
b) Proliferation zone
c) Hypertrophy zone
d) Calcification zone
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55. What is the name of the small cavities where chondrocytes are encased?
a) Haversian canals
b) Canaliculi
c) Lacunae
d) Lamellae
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56. How does the body initially respond to tissue damage near a broken bone?
a) By forming a hard callus immediately
b) By allowing the damaged tissue to heal naturally without intervention
c) By forming a soft callus comprised of collagen and fibrocartilage
d) By immediately replacing damaged tissue with compact bone
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57. Which cells are responsible for invading the procallus during bone healing?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Fibroblasts
c) Osteoclasts
d) Chondrocytes
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58. What type of callus bridges the broken ends of the bone during healing?
a) Fibrous callus
b) Fibrocartilaginous callus
c) Bony callus
d) Spongy callus
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59. What role do osteoblasts play in bone healing?
a) They resorb the callus formed during healing.
b) They invade the procallus and differentiate into fibroblasts.
c) They form spongy bone, replacing osteoprogenitor cells.
d) They coalesce to form compact bone during remodeling.
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60. What is the difference between closed reduction and open reduction in bone healing?
a) Closed reduction involves surgery, while open reduction does not.
b) Closed reduction requires the use of pins or wires, while open reduction does not.
c) Closed reduction relies on natural healing processes, while open reduction involves manual
manipulation.
d) Closed reduction involves coaxing bone ends back into place without surgery, while open reductioninvolves surgery and securing bone ends.
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Cell Cycle
1. What are the stages collectively known as in the cell cycle?
A) Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) G1, S, G2, M
C) Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase
D) Synthesis, duplication, division, mitosis
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2. Which phase of the cell cycle involves DNA synthesis?
A) G1 phase
B) S phase
C) G2 phase
D) M phase
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3. What occurs during prophase of mitosis?
A) Chromosomes align at the cell equator
B) Chromosomes replicate
C) Nuclear membrane disintegrates and chromosomes condense
D) Centrosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell
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4. Which structure duplicates to form two daughter centrosomes during prophase?
A) Mitotic spindle
B) Nucleolus
C) Centrosome
D) Chromosomes
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5. During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?
A) Prophase
B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
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6. What is the role of the mitotic spindle during mitosis?
A) Separating sister chromatids
B) Duplicating chromosomes
C) Forming centrosomes
D) Synthesizing DNA
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7. In which phase of the cell cycle does the cell commit to division?
A) S phase
B) G1 phase
C) G2 phase
D) M phase
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8. What is the outcome of mitosis in multicellular organisms?
A) Production of haploid gametes
B) Formation of a diploid zygote
C) Asexual reproduction
D) Synthesis of new DNA
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9. What is the main function of mitosis in adult organisms?
A) Sexual reproduction
B) Cell replacement and wound healing
C) DNA synthesis
D) Formation of haploid gametes
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10. What is the period between mitotic divisions known as?
A) Interphase
B) Prophase
C) Telophase
D) Prometaphase
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11. During which stage of mitosis do replicated chromosomes align along the metaphase plate?
A) Prophase
B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
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12. What structure holds together two identical chromatids in a replicated chromosome during mitosis?
A) Kinetochore
B) Centrosome
C) Centromere
D) Spindle fiber
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13. In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes form pairs called bivalents?
A) Leptotene
B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene
D) Diplotene
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14. What is the significance of alignment and separation during metaphase and anaphase of mitosis?
A) To form new chromosomes
B) To ensure each daughter cell receives a copy of every chromosome
C) To initiate DNA replication
D) To condense chromosomes
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15. Which stage of mitosis marks the division of centromeres and the separation of sister chromatids?
A) Prophase
B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
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16. What is the final cellular division process following mitosis to form two new cells?
A) Leptotene
B) Zygotene
C) Cytokinesis
D) Diplotene
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17. Which phase of meiosis involves the crossing over between pairs of homologous chromosomes?
A) Leptotene
B) Pachytene
C) Diplotene
D) Diakinesis
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18. What marks the beginning of the process of condensation of chromosomes during mitosis?
A) Leptotene
B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene
D) Diakinesis
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19. What structure binds spindle fibers to chromosomes during mitosis?
A) Centromere
B) Centrosome
C) Kinetochore
D) Chromatid
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20. In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes start to separate but remain attached by chiasmata?
A) Zygotene
B) Pachytene
C) Diplotene
D) Diakinesis
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21. What is the outcome of Meiosis I in terms of chromosome number?
a) It remains diploid
b) It becomes haploid
c) It doubles the chromosome number
d) It triples the chromosome number
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22. What occurs during Anaphase I of meiosis?
a) Chromatids separate and move to opposite poles
b) Chromosomes become diffuse and nuclear membrane reforms
c) Homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles
d) Final cellular division occurs to form two new cells
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23. How does Meiosis II differ from Meiosis I in terms of chromosome separation?
a) It separates homologous chromosomes
b) It separates sister chromatids
c) It involves random alignment of chromosomes
d) It forms haploid cells
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24. Which process contributes most to genetic diversity during meiosis?
a) The exchange of genetic material during Meiosis I
b) The formation of haploid cells during Meiosis II
c) The alignment of chromosomes during cytokinesis
d) The duplication of chromosomes during telophase I
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25. What is the total number of possible combinations of chromosomes in humans after Meiosis?
a) 23
b) 46
c) 223
d) 246
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Histology Of Muscles
1. Which type of muscle is responsible for contraction for locomotion and skeletal movement?
a) Smooth muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Voluntary muscle
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2. What is the main characteristic feature of cardiac muscle cells?
a) Presence of multiple nuclei
b) Striations and voluntary control
c) Branched structure and centrally located nuclei
d) Spindle-shaped cells
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3. Which type of muscle contains intercalated discs?
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Involuntary muscle
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4. What is the primary function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells?
a) Storage of calcium ions
b) Synthesis of contractile proteins
c) Regulation of muscle movement
d) Production of energy
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5. Which type of muscle tissue is responsible for pressure regulation within organs?
a) Smooth muscle
b) Skeletal muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Involuntary muscle
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6. What is the shape of smooth muscle cells?
a) Elongated and tubular
b) Branched
c) Spindle-shaped
d) Spherical
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7. Where are the nuclei located in skeletal muscle cells?
a) Centrally within the cell
b) At both ends of the cell
c) Distributed throughout the cell
d) Located on the periphery of the cell
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8. Which type of muscle tissue is both striated and involuntary?
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Smooth muscle
d) Voluntary muscle
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9. Which structure acts as calcium storage sites in muscle cells?
a) Sarcomere
b) Sarcosome
c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d) Sarcolemma
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10. What are the invaginations of the sarcolemma called?
a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b) T tubules
c) Terminal cisternae
d) Intercalated discs
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11. Which type of muscle is under voluntary control?
a) Smooth muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Involuntary muscle
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12. What is the function of terminal cisternae in muscle cells?
a) Production of energy
b) Storage of calcium ions
c) Synthesis of contractile proteins
d) Regulation of muscle movement
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13. Which type of muscle tissue is non-striated and involuntary?
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Smooth muscle
d) Voluntary muscle
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14. What is the contractile or functional unit of muscle called?
a) Sarcomere
b) Myofiber
c) Sarcolemma
d) Sarcoplasm
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15. Which type of muscle cells contain intercalated discs?
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Smooth muscle
d) Involuntary muscle
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16. What is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle?
A) Epimysium
B) Perimysium
C) Endomysium
D) Sarcomere
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17. What are the bundles of individual muscle cells called?
A) Epimysium
B) Fascicles
C) Perimysium
D) Sarcomeres
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18. Which connective tissue sheath surrounds each fascicle?
A) Epimysium
B) Perimysium
C) Endomysium
D) Sarcomere
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19. What is the repeating unit of a myofibril in a muscle cell?
A) Epimysium
B) Sarcomere
C) Perimysium
D) Fascicle
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20. What is the function of the Z line in a sarcomere?
A) ATP binding
B) Muscle contraction initiation
C) Actin binding
D) Myosin binding
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21. Which proteins are found in thick filaments?
A) Actin and Tropomyosin
B) Actin and Troponin
C) Tropomyosin and Troponin
D) Myosin
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The Histology Of Nervous Tissue
1. What is the main function of the sensory division of the peripheral nervous system?
a) Transmit impulses from CNS to effector organs
b) Monitor changes in internal and external environment
c) Process and interpret sensory information
d) Activate muscle contraction and glandular secretion
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2. Which division of the nervous system is responsible for activating muscle contraction and glandular secretion?
a) Central Nervous System
b) Sensory Division
c) Motor Division
d) Autonomic Nervous System
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3. The central nervous system is comprised of which structures?
a) Brain and cranial nerves
b) Spinal cord and sensory receptors
c) Brain and spinal cord
d) Spinal and cranial nerves
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4. What is the primary role of the myelin sheath surrounding axons?
a) Insulate the axon
b) Speed up the transmission of nerve impulses
c) Provide structural support to the neuron
d) Facilitate communication between neurons
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5. Which part of the neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?
a) Dendrites
b) Cell body
c) Axon
d) Axon terminals
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6. What type of neurons receive and carry information from sensory receptors to the CNS?
a) Sensory (Afferent) Neurons
b) Motor Neurons
c) Interneurons
d) Glial Cells
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7. Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for voluntary control of skeletal muscles?
a) Afferent Division
b) Sympathetic Division
c) Parasympathetic Division
d) Somatic Nervous System
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8. What is the role of glial cells in the nervous system?
a) Transmit nerve impulses
b) Interpret sensory information
c) Support, insulate, and protect neurons
d) Activate muscle contraction
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9. Which part of the neuron contains the nucleus and cytoplasm?
a) Dendrites
b) Cell body
c) Axon
d) Myelin sheath
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10. What is the function of the synaptic cleft?
a) Transmit impulses between neurons
b) Insulate the axon
c) Support the cell body
d) Carry impulses to effector organs
View Answer
11. Which structural division of the nervous system consists of spinal and cranial nerves?
a) Central Nervous System
b) Peripheral Nervous System
c) Autonomic Nervous System
d) Somatic Nervous System
View Answer
12. What is the role of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system?
a) Send impulses from sensory receptors to CNS
b) Carry impulses from CNS to effector organs
c) Monitor changes in the environment
d) Support and protect neurons
View Answer
13. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for emergency responses like “fight or flight”?
a) Sympathetic Division
b) Parasympathetic Division
c) Somatic Division
d) Afferent Division
View Answer
14. What is the primary function of sensory neurons?
a) Interpret sensory information
b) Transmit impulses to effector organs
c) Carry information from sensory receptors to CNS
d) Activate muscle contraction
View Answer
15. What is the main function of the motor division of the nervous system?
a) Monitor changes in internal and external environment
b) Interpret sensory information
c) Transmit impulses to effector organs
d) Support and protect neurons
View Answer
16. What is the structural unit of the nervous system responsible for transmitting messages?
a) Glial cells
b) Axon terminals
c) Neurotransmitters
d) Neurons
View Answer
17. Which part of the neuron contains neurotransmitters?
a) Dendrites
b) Cell body
c) Axon terminals
d) Myelin sheath
View Answer
18. What type of neurons are responsible for carrying impulses from CNS to effector organs?
a) Sensory Neurons
b) Motor Neurons
c) Interneurons
d) Glial Cells
View Answer
19. Which division of the nervous system processes and interprets sensory information?
a) Afferent Division
b) Efferent Division
c) Integration Division
d) Sympathetic Division
View Answer
20. What is the function of the node of Ranvier?
a) Speed up nerve impulse transmission
b) Release neurotransmitters
c) Support the neuron
d) Allow nerve impulses to jump between nodes
View Answer
21. What is the primary function of motor (efferent) neurons?
a) Carry impulses from organs to the CNS
b) Carry impulses from the CNS to organs, muscles, and glands
c) Connect sensory and motor neurons
d) Transmit electrical impulses within the CNS
View Answer
22. Which type of neurons connect sensory and motor neurons exclusively within the CNS?
a) Motor neurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Interneurons
d) Efferent neurons
View Answer
23. During resting potential, what is the distribution of ions across the neuron membrane?
a) More negative ions outside and positive ions inside
b) Equal distribution of ions inside and outside
c) More positive ions outside and negative ions inside
d) No ions present across the membrane
View Answer
24. What ion flows inside the neuron membrane during depolarization, leading to the action potential?
a) Chloride (Cl-)
b) Sodium (Na+)
c) Calcium (Ca2+)
d) Potassium (K+)
View Answer
25. Which structure covers the axon and helps in speeding up the transmission of electrical impulses?
a) Node of Ranvier
b) Schwann cells
c) Neurotransmitters
d) Synapse
View Answer
26. What term describes the rapid, predictable, and involuntary response to stimuli?
a) Voluntary action
b) Reflex
c) Synapse
d) Propagation
View Answer
27. Which type of reflex stimulates the skeletal muscles?
a) Somatic reflexes
b) Autonomic reflexes
c) Sensory reflexes
d) Motor reflexes
View Answer
28. What is the primary function of autonomic reflexes?
a) Regulate skeletal muscles
b) Regulate smooth muscles, heart rate, and glands
c) Control voluntary movements
d) Transmit sensory information to the CNS
View Answer
29. Which element of the reflex arc carries the message from the CNS to the effector organ?
a) Sensory receptor
b) Sensory neurons
c) Motor neurons
d) Integration center
View Answer
30. What is the function of neurotransmitters in neuronal communication?
a) They cover the axon and facilitate impulse transmission
b) They regulate the resting potential of neurons
c) They transmit electrical impulses along the dendrites
d) They serve as chemical messengers between neurons
View Answer
31. What type of neurons carry impulses from the CNS to organs, muscles, and glands?
a) Sensory neurons
b) Interneurons
c) Motor neurons
d) Efferent neurons
View Answer
32. What happens to the membrane potential during depolarization?
a) It becomes more negative inside the cell
b) It becomes more negative outside the cell
c) It becomes more positive inside the cell
d) It remains unchanged
View Answer
33. Which component of the reflex arc detects a stimulus?
a) Sensory receptor
b) Sensory neurons
c) Integration center
d) Motor neurons
View Answer
34. What initiates the release of neurotransmitters from the axon terminal?
a) Depolarization of the dendrites
b) Action potential in the axon
c) Repolarization of the membrane
d) Presence of sensory receptors
View Answer
35. What is the primary role of interneurons in the CNS?
a) Transmit impulses from sensory neurons to motor neurons
b) Carry impulses from the CNS to organs and glands
c) Connect sensory and motor neurons within the CNS
d) Regulate the release of neurotransmitters
View Answer
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Histology Of The Blood
1. What are the primary functions of blood?
a) Transportation of nutrients, oxygen, and waste
b) Maintenance of homeostasis
c) Conveyance of hormones and regulatory molecules
d) All of the above
View Answer
2. Which component of blood is the most abundant plasma protein?
a) Albumin
b) Hemoglobin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Immunoglobulins
View Answer
3. What is the normal range of hematocrit in adults?
a) 15-25
b) 25-35
c) 35-55
d) 55-75
View Answer
4. Which type of blood cell remains at the bottom of a hematocrit tube?
a) Platelets
b) Erythrocytes
c) Leukocytes
d) Monocytes
View Answer
5. What is the primary function of neutrophils?
a) Phagocytosis of pathogens
b) Production of antibodies
c) Regulation of blood pressure
d) Oxygen transportation
View Answer
6. Which blood cell type has an affinity for acidophilic dyes?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Basophils
c) Neutrophils
d) Eosinophils
View Answer
7. What staining property results in a pink to orange coloration of blood cells?
a) Basophilia
b) Azurophilia
c) Acidophilia
d) Eosinophilia
View Answer
8. Which blood cell type has an affinity for reddish-blue staining?
a) Neutrophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Basophils
d) Monocytes
View Answer
9. What is the main function of platelets in the blood?
a) Oxygen transportation
b) Blood clotting
c) Phagocytosis
d) Hormone transport
View Answer
10. What is the composition of plasma?
a) 80% water, 20% solutes
b) 90% water, 10% solutes
c) 70% water, 30% solutes
d) 60% water, 40% solutes
View Answer
11. Which blood cell type lacks specific granules?
a) Neutrophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Eosinophils
View Answer
12. What is the primary function of lymphocytes?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Antibody production
c) Blood clotting
d) Oxygen transport
View Answer
13. Which staining property results in a pink to lilac coloration of blood cells?
a) Basophilia
b) Eosinophilia
c) Azurophilia
d) Neutrophilia
View Answer
14. What is the primary function of erythrocytes?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Hormone transport
c) Oxygen transport
d) Blood clotting
View Answer
15. What is the main function of granulocytes?
a) Production of antibodies
b) Oxygen transport
c) Phagocytosis
d) Hormone transport
View Answer
16. Which component of blood is responsible for transporting leukocytes and antibodies through tissues?
a) Plasma
b) Platelets
c) Erythrocytes
d) Granulocytes
View Answer
17. What is the primary function of basophils?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Allergic response
c) Antibody production
d) Oxygen transport
View Answer
18. Which staining property results in a purple to black coloration of blood cells?
a) Azurophilia
b) Eosinophilia
c) Acidophilia
d) Basophilia
View Answer
19. What is the main function of plasma proteins?
a) Oxygen transport
b) Blood clotting
c) Phagocytosis
d) Hormone production
View Answer
20. What is the average life span of a red blood cell?
A) Approximately 90 days
B) About 120 days
C) Around 60 days
D) Roughly 30 days
View Answer
21. Which component maintains the biconcave shape of a red blood cell?
A) Actin
B) Myoglobin
C) Spectrin
D) Hemoglobin
View Answer
22. What is the primary function of mature red blood cells?
A) Antibacterial defense
B) ATP production
C) Oxygen transport
D) Blood clot formation
View Answer
23. What is the major protein component of the stroma in red blood cells?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Spectrin
C) Actin
D) Myosin
View Answer
24. Platelets are derived from which precursor cell type?
A) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
C) Megakaryocytes
D) Neutrophils
View Answer
25. What initiates the process of blood clotting?
A) Platelet aggregation
B) Thromboplastin
C) Serotonin release
D) ADP secretion
View Answer
26. Which organelle in platelets is responsible for ATP production?
A) Mitochondria
B) Ribosomes
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
View Answer
27. What is the primary function of platelets in blood clot formation?
A) Oxygen transport
B) Phagocytosis
C) Initiation of clotting
D) Smooth muscle proliferation
View Answer
28. Which white blood cell type is most abundant?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
View Answer
29. What is the primary function of neutrophils?
A) Initiating blood clot formation
B) Antibacterial defense
C) Initiating smooth muscle proliferation
D) Facilitating oxygen transport
View Answer
30. Which process describes the movement of neutrophils from blood vessels to sites of inflammation?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Diapedesis
C) Clot resolution
D) Vasoconstriction
View Answer
31. What is the characteristic appearance of eosinophils in a light microscope smear?
A) Small basophilic fragments
B) Multi-lobed nucleus
C) Pink/red specific granules
D) Lack of nucleus
View Answer
32. Which granule content in eosinophils is effective against parasites?
A) Thromboplastin
B) Major basic protein (MBP)
C) Fibrinogen
D) Plasminogen
View Answer
33. What is the life span of platelets?
A) Approximately 60 days
B) About 30 days
C) Around 10 days
D) Roughly 120 days
View Answer
34. Which cell type is responsible for initiating blood clot formation?
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Platelets
D) Lymphocytes
View Answer
35. What is the primary function of the cytoskeletal complex in red blood cells?
A) Facilitating phagocytosis
B) Maintaining cell shape
C) Synthesizing hemoglobin
D) Initiating blood clot formation
View Answer
36. Which substance is released by platelets to induce vasoconstriction?
A) Serotonin
B) Thromboxane A2
C) ADP
D) Thromboplastin
View Answer
37. What is the function of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)?
A) Stimulating smooth muscle proliferation
B) Initiating blood clot formation
C) Facilitating oxygen transport
D) Enhancing phagocytosis
View Answer
38. What is the primary component responsible for maintaining the shape of platelets?
A) Actin and myosin
B) Spectrin
C) Microtubules
D) Granules
View Answer
39. What is the main component of the specific granules in neutrophils?
A) Thromboplastin
B) Major basic protein (MBP)
C) Fibrinogen
D) Plasminogen
View Answer
40. What is the typical appearance of neutrophils under a light microscope?
A) Small basophilic fragments
B) Pink/red specific granules
C) Multi-lobed nucleus
D) Lack of nucleus
View Answer
41. What is the function of platelet plasminogen activator (pPA)?
A) Initiating smooth muscle proliferation
B) Facilitating oxygen transport
C) Clot resolution
D) Antibacterial defense
View Answer
42. What is the primary function of eosinophils?
A) Initiating blood clot formation
B) Antibacterial defense
C) Phagocytosis
D) Defense against parasites
View Answer
43. What is the primary function of the dense tubular system in platelets?
A) ATP production
B) Ca++ sequestration for signaling
C) Clot resolution
D) Smooth muscle proliferation
View Answer
44. Which process describes the movement of neutrophils from blood vessels to sites of inflammation?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Diapedesis
C) Clot resolution
D) Vasoconstriction
View Answer
45. What is the primary function of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)?
A) Stimulating smooth muscle proliferation
B) Initiating blood clot formation
C) Facilitating oxygen transport
D) Enhancing phagocytosis
View Answer
46. What is the primary component responsible for maintaining the shape of platelets?
A) Actin and myosin
B) Spectrin
C) Microtubules
D) Granules
View Answer
47. What is the main component of the specific granules in neutrophils?
A) Thromboplastin
B) Major basic protein (MBP)
C) Fibrinogen
D) Plasminogen
View Answer
48. What is the typical appearance of neutrophils under a light microscope?
A) Small basophilic fragments
B) Pink/red specific granules
C) Multi-lobed nucleus
D) Lack of nucleus
View Answer
49. What is the function of platelet plasminogen activator (pPA)?
A) Initiating smooth muscle proliferation
B) Facilitating oxygen transport
C) Clot resolution
D) Antibacterial defense
View Answer
50. What is the primary function of eosinophils?
A) Initiating blood clot formation
B) Antibacterial defense
C) Phagocytosis
D) Defense against parasites
View Answer
51. What is the primary function of the dense tubular system in platelets?
A) ATP production
B) Ca++ sequestration for signaling
C) Clot resolution
D) Smooth muscle proliferation
View Answer
52. What is the primary function of eosinophils?
a) Production of antibodies
b) Inflammatory response mediation
c) Antigen presentation
d) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
View Answer
53. What is a characteristic feature of basophils observed under a light microscope?
a) Large nucleus with abundant heterochromatin
b) Pale cytoplasm with occasional stained granules
c) Bilobed nucleus partially obscured by granules
d) Presence of specific granules stained with a basic dye
View Answer
54. Which cell type shares similarities in function and granule content with basophils?
a) T-lymphocytes
b) Eosinophils
c) Mast cells
d) Monocytes
View Answer
55. What is the primary function of lymphocytes?
a) Phagocytosis
b) Inflammatory response mediation
c) Humoral and cellular immunity
d) Antigen presentation
View Answer
56. How do large lymphocytes differ from small lymphocytes in appearance?
a) Larger nucleus with abundant heterochromatin
b) Presence of abundant lysosomes in the cytoplasm
c) More extensive cytoplasmic activity
d) Larger size, up to approximately 15 µm in diameter
View Answer
57. What is a characteristic feature of monocytes observed under a light microscope?
a) Round, dense nucleus
b) Large, purple/black specific granules
c) Pale cytoplasm with occasional stained granules
d) Narrow rim of cytoplasm around the nucleus
View Answer
58. Which cell type mediates the inflammatory response and helps to destroy foreign bodies in tissues?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Lymphocytes
View Answer
59. Where does blood cell development primarily occur in adults?
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Red bone marrow
d) Thymus
View Answer
60. What is the function of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow?
a) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
b) Production of antibodies
c) Formation of blood platelets
d) Mediation of allergic responses
View Answer
61. Which cell type is responsible for producing antibodies?
a) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
c) T-lymphocytes
d) B-lymphocytes
View Answer
62. What is the primary function of basophils?
a) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
b) Production of antibodies
c) Mediation of inflammatory responses
d) Formation of blood platelets
View Answer
63. What is a characteristic feature of eosinophils observed under a light microscope?
a) Large nucleus with abundant heterochromatin
b) Presence of specific granules stained with a basic dye
c) Pale cytoplasm with occasional stained granules
d) Bilobed nucleus partially obscured by granules
View Answer
64. Which cells can differentiate into tissue plasma cells?
a) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Monocytes
d) B-lymphocytes
View Answer
65. What is the primary function of monocytes in tissues?
a) Formation of blood platelets
b) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
c) Production of antibodies
d) Mediation of allergic responses
View Answer
66. Where does blood cell development primarily occur during fetal development?
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Yolk sac
d) Thymus
View Answer
67. What is a characteristic feature of megakaryocytes observed under a light microscope?
a) Large nucleus with abundant heterochromatin
b) Pale cytoplasm without visible granules
c) Presence of specific granules stained with a basic dye
d) Multiple lobes in the nucleus
View Answer
68. Which cells are responsible for producing pro-inflammatory chemokines?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Lymphocytes
View Answer
69. What is the primary function of T-lymphocytes?
a) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
b) Humoral immunity
c) Cellular immunity
d) Mediation of allergic responses
View Answer
70. Which cells have a common precursor in bone marrow with tissue mast cells?
a) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Monocytes
d) Lymphocytes
View Answer
71. What is the function of dendritic cells and Langerhans cells?
a) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
b) Mediation of inflammatory responses
c) Antigen presentation
d) Production of antibodies
View Answer
72. Which cells are primarily responsible for engulfing and sequestering antigen-antibody complexes?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Lymphocytes
View Answer
73. Which cells are involved in the mediation of allergic reactions and anaphylaxis?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Lymphocytes
View Answer
74. What is the primary function of eosinophils in the bloodstream?
a) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
b) Inflammatory response mediation
c) Antigen presentation
d) Production of antibodies
View Answer
75. What is a characteristic feature of lymphocytes under a transmission electron microscope (TEM)?
a) Presence of specific granules stained with a basic dye
b) Extensive cytoplasmic activity
c) Mainly containing mitochondria and free ribosomes
d) Large, purple/black specific granules
View Answer
76. Which cells are responsible for secreting pro-inflammatory chemokines?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Lymphocytes
View Answer
77. What is the primary function of megakaryocytes?
a) Phagocytosis of foreign bodies
b) Production of antibodies
c) Formation of blood platelets
d) Mediation of allergic responses
View Answer
78. What is the lifespan of a basophil in the bloodstream?
a) Few days
b) 1-2 years
c) Several months
d) Variable (few days to several years)
View Answer
79. Where do megakaryocytes primarily produce blood platelets?
a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Bone marrow
d) Thymus
View Answer
80. What is a characteristic feature of monocytes under a transmission electron microscope (TEM)?
a) Presence of specific granules stained with a basic dye
b) Extensive cytoplasmic activity
c) Mainly containing mitochondria and free ribosomes
d) Large, purple/black specific granules
View Answer
81. Which cell type primarily contributes to the maintenance or remodeling of tissues and mediates the
inflammatory response?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Lymphocytes
View Answer
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Histology Of Epithelial Tissue
1. Which type of tissue always rests upon the basal lamina?
A) Connective tissue
B) Epithelial tissue
C) Muscle tissue
D) Nervous tissue
View Answer
2. What supports the epithelium and is associated with the connective tissue?
A) Reticular fibers
B) Collagen network
C) Elastin fibers
D) Adipose cells
View Answer
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of epithelial tissues?
A) Highly vascular
B) Slow regeneration
C) Loose packing of cells
D) Easily regenerates
View Answer
4. Where are nutrients typically derived from for epithelial tissues?
A) Nerves
B) Lymphatic vessels
C) Capillaries in underlying connective tissue
D) Interstitial fluid
View Answer
5. Which type of epithelial tissue is found in the lining of the gut?
A) Stratified squamous
B) Transitional
C) Simple columnar
D) Simple squamous
View Answer
6. Which structure increases the surface area for absorption in the small intestine?
A) Microvilli
B) Cilia
C) Flagella
D) Stereocilia
View Answer
7. Where are cilia typically found in the body?
A) Respiratory system
B) Digestive system
C) Urinary system
D) Skeletal system
View Answer
8. Which epithelial feature is responsible for moving mucus over the epithelial surface?
A) Microvilli
B) Cilia
C) Flagella
D) Stereocilia
View Answer
9. What type of junction occurs at the apical area where the plasma membrane of adjacent cells fuse?
A) Desmosomes
B) Tight junctions
C) Gap junctions
D) Adherens junctions
View Answer
10. Which type of junction allows small molecules to pass between adjacent cells?
A) Desmosomes
B) Tight junctions
C) Gap junctions
D) Adherens junctions
View Answer
11. Which epithelial tissue type is found in the epidermis?
A) Simple squamous
B) Transitional
C) Stratified squamous
D) Simple cuboidal
View Answer
12. What is the primary function of transitional epithelium?
A) Absorption
B) Secretion
C) Stretching
D) Protection
View Answer
13. Which type of junction serves as adhesive spots on the lateral sides of epithelial cells?
A) Desmosomes
B) Tight junctions
C) Gap junctions
D) Adherens junctions
View Answer
14. What is the function of stereocilia in the epididymis and ductus deferens?
A) Absorption
B) Secretion
C) Motility
D) Protection
View Answer
15. Which type of junction connects cells via proteins, forming a link between neighboring cells?
A) Desmosomes
B) Tight junctions
C) Gap junctions
D) Adherens junctions
View Answer
16. What type of cell junctions are responsible for forming impermeable barriers between cells?
a) Adherens junctions
b) Desmosomes
c) Tight junctions
d) Gap junctions
View Answer
17. Which proteins are associated with tight junctions and contribute to their impermeability?
a) Cadherins
b) Claudins and occludins
c) Connexons
d) Keratin and desmin
View Answer
18. What type of junctions are responsible for holding cells together?
a) Tight junctions
b) Gap junctions
c) Desmosomes
d) Adherens junctions
View Answer
19. Which type of glandular tissue secretes its product directly into the bloodstream?
a) Exocrine glands
b) Unicellular glands
c) Endocrine glands
d) Merocrine glands
View Answer
20. What is the structural characteristic of simple glands?
a) Highly branching
b) Tubular or acinar
c) Have no branches
d) Coiled tubular
View Answer
21. Which glands secrete their product along with the apical part of the cell cytoplasm?
a) Merocrine glands
b) Holocrine glands
c) Apocrine glands
d) Endocrine glands
View Answer
22. What is the primary mode of secretion in merocrine glands?
a) Secretion of entire cell
b) Shedding of cell cytoplasm
c) Secretion of apical part of cell
d) Exocytosis with no loss of cell or cytoplasm
View Answer
23. What structure serves as a supportive sheet between epithelium and underlying connective tissue?
a) Basement membrane
b) Tight junctions
c) Gap junctions
d) Desmosomes
View Answer
24. Which classification of glandular tissue is based on the number of cells present?
a) Mode of secretion
b) Structure
c) Duct type
d) Unicellular or multicellular
View Answer
25. What protein is associated with desmosomes, serving as binding spots between cells?
a) Claudins
b) Occludins
c) Cadherins
d) Connexons
View Answer
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Histology OF Respiratory System
1. Which type of epithelium lines the vestibule of the nasal cavity?
a) Stratified squamous epithelium
b) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
c) Simple squamous epithelium
d) Simple columnar epithelium
View Answer
2. Which region of the nasal cavity is responsible for the sensation of smell?
a) Inferior portion (vestibule)
b) Middle portion (respiratory region)
c) Upper portion (olfactory region)
d) Submucosal region
View Answer
3. What type of epithelium is characteristic of the naso-pharynx?
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Simple cuboidal epithelium
View Answer
4. Which layer of the larynx contains a rich supply of elastic fibers and lymphocytes?
a) Mucosa
b) Submucosa
c) Cartilage
d) Lamina propria
View Answer
5. What type of glands may be found in the submucosa of the naso-pharynx?
a) Serous glands
b) Mucous glands
c) Mixed glands
d) Endocrine glands
View Answer
6. Which type of cartilage predominates in the framework of the larynx?
a) Elastic cartilage
b) Fibrocartilage
c) Hyaline cartilage
d) Cartilaginous tissue
View Answer
7. Which region of the respiratory system contains skeletal muscles?
a) Nasal cavity
b) Larynx
c) Paranasal sinuses
d) Nasopharynx
View Answer
8. What type of epithelial cells carry the sensation of smell in the nasal cavity?
a) Goblet cells
b) Simple squamous epithelial cells
c) Specialized olfactory epithelial cells
d) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial cells
View Answer
9. Which region of the nasal cavity is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium?
a) Vestibule
b) Respiratory region
c) Olfactory region
d) Submucosal region
View Answer
10. What type of epithelium is characteristic of the paranasal sinuses?
a) Stratified squamous epithelium
b) Simple squamous epithelium
c) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
d) Transitional epithelium
View Answer
11. What type of epithelium lines the trachea and major bronchi?
A) Simple squamous
B) Pseudostratified columnar ciliated
C) Simple cuboidal
D) Stratified squamous
View Answer
12. What is the primary structural component of the trachea and bronchi?
A) Smooth muscle
B) Elastic fibers
C) Hyaline cartilage
D) Dense irregular fibrous tissue
View Answer
13. Which cells produce surfactant in the alveoli?
A) Macrophages
B) Alveolar type-II cells
C) Alveolar type-I cells
D) Tracheal glands
View Answer
14. What is the lining epithelium of the terminal bronchioles?
A) Simple squamous
B) Simple cuboidal
C) Pseudostratified columnar ciliated
D) Stratified squamous
View Answer
15. Which structure divides the lung parenchyma into various lobules?
A) Tunica serosa
B) Mesothelium
C) Septae
D) Alveolar ducts
View Answer
16. What marks the end of the intra-pulmonary conducting passages?
A) Respiratory bronchioles
B) Terminal bronchioles
C) Sub-segmental bronchi
D) Segmental bronchi
View Answer
17. What is the primary function of alveolar sacs?
A) Gas exchange
B) Surfactant production
C) Mucus secretion
D) Muscle contraction
View Answer
18. Which cells are responsible for phagocytosis in the alveoli?
A) Alveolar type-I cells
B) Alveolar type-II cells
C) Macrophages
D) Duct cells
View Answer
19. What is the characteristic feature of the bronchioles in terms of cartilage?
A) Presence of hyaline cartilage
B) Absence of cartilage
C) Cartilage plates arranged closely
D) Dense irregular fibrous tissue
View Answer
20. Which division of the lung duct system is responsible for gas exchange?
A) Conducting division
B) Respiratory division
C) Segmental bronchi
D) Terminal bronchioles
View Answer
21. What type of epithelium lines the alveoli?
A) Simple squamous
B) Pseudostratified columnar
C) Simple cuboidal
D) Stratified squamous
View Answer
22. What structure connects the respiratory bronchioles to the alveolar ducts?
A) Alveolar sacs
B) Atria
C) Terminal bronchioles
D) Segmental bronchi
View Answer
23. Which cell type in the alveoli produces surfactant?
A) Alveolar type-I cells
B) Alveolar type-II cells
C) Macrophages
D) Duct cells
View Answer
24. What is the function of the trachealis muscle?
A) Gas exchange
B) Surfactant production
C) Mucus secretion
D) Muscle contraction
View Answer
25. What is the primary component of the lamina propria in the trachea?
A) Elastic fibers
B) Blood vessels
C) Lymphocytes
D) Smooth muscle fibers
View Answer
26. Which type of epithelium lines the primary bronchus and its branches up to the terminal bronchiole?
A) Simple squamous
B) Simple cuboidal
C) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
D) Simple columnar
View Answer
27. What is a prominent component of the wall in the conducting division of the respiratory system?
A) Goblet cells
B) Smooth muscle
C) Elastic fibers
D) Pulmonary alveoli
View Answer
28. Which type of epithelium is found in the distal part of the respiratory bronchioles?
A) Simple squamous
B) Simple cuboidal
C) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
D) Simple columnar
View Answer
29. What structures open into the lumen of a respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, or alveolar sac?
A) Pulmonary arteries
B) Bronchial glands
C) Pulmonary alveoli
D) Elastic fibers
View Answer
30. Which component is present between two adjacent alveolar walls?
A) Smooth muscle
B) Goblet cells
C) Inter-alveolar septum
D) Pulmonary arteries
View Answer
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Integumentary System
1. What is the primary function of the integumentary system?
a) To regulate blood sugar levels
b) To act as a barrier against the environment
c) To aid in digestion
d) To pump blood throughout the body
View Answer
2. Which of the following is NOT a derivative of the skin?
a) Hair
b) Sweat glands
c) Muscle tissue
d) Hoof
View Answer
3. Which layer of the skin is thickest at the dorsal surface of the body?
a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Stratum basale
d) Stratum corneum
View Answer
4. What is the primary function of melanocytes?
a) Production of sweat
b) Production of keratin
c) Synthesis of melanin
d) Storage of nutrients
View Answer
5. Which cell type in the epidermis is responsible for the production of melanin?
a) Keratinocytes
b) Melanocytes
c) Merkel cells
d) Langerhans cells
View Answer
6. Where are Langerhans cells primarily located?
a) Basal layer of the epidermis
b) Stratum spinosum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum corneum
View Answer
7. Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for the synthesis of filaggrin and secretion of intercellular cement?
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum spinosum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum corneum
View Answer
8. What is the composition of melanosomes?
a) Serotonin
b) Polypeptides
c) Melanin
d) Keratin
View Answer
9. Which layer of the epidermis is only found in specific areas of exceptionally thick skin?
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum granulosum
c) Stratum lucidum
d) Stratum corneum
View Answer
10. What is the primary function of tactile epithelioid cells (Merkel cells)?
a) Secretion of sweat
b) Production of melanin
c) Sensory perception
d) Phagocytosis
View Answer
11. Which layer of the epidermis is directly connected with the dermis?
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum spinosum
c) Stratum granulosum
d) Stratum corneum
View Answer
12. What is the main structural component of the epidermis?
a) Melanin
b) Keratinocytes
c) Melanosomes
d) Langerhans cells
View Answer
13. Which cell type in the epidermis undergoes mitosis for cell renewal?
a) Melanocytes
b) Merkel cells
c) Keratinocytes
d) Langerhans cells
View Answerc) Keratinocytes
14. What is the primary function of intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells)?
a) Sensory perception
b) Production of melanin
c) Phagocytosis
d) Production of keratin
View Answer
15. What is the outermost layer of the epidermis primarily composed of?
a) Live cells with a high metabolic rate
b) Dead cells undergoing apoptosis
c) Dense layers of keratinized cells
d) Melanocytes actively producing melanin
View Answer
16. What structure separates the epidermis from the dermis?
a) Basement membrane
b) Lamina propria
c) Lamina lucida
d) Lamina densa
View Answer
17. Which layer of the skin contains encapsulated touch receptors known as Meissner’s corpuscles?
a) Papillary layer
b) Reticular layer
c) Hypodermis
d) Epidermis
View Answer
18. Which of the following is NOT found in the dermis?
a) Blood vessels
b) Lymph vessels
c) Sebaceous glands
d) Melanocytes
View Answer
19. What muscle fibers are located near the hair follicles in the dermis?
a) Smooth muscle fibers
b) Striated muscle fibers
c) Cardiac muscle fibers
d) Skeletal muscle fibers
View Answer
20. What is the function of the hypodermis?
a) To anchor the dermis to the underlying muscle or bone
b) To produce sweat
c) To produce sebum
d) To provide sensation
View Answer
21. Which layer of the hair shaft consists of dense compact keratinized cells?
a) Cuticle
b) Cortex
c) Medulla
d) Dermal papillae
View Answer
22. Where are hair follicles located?
a) Epidermis
b) Hypodermis
c) Dermis
d) Subcutaneous tissue
View Answer
23. Sebaceous glands release their secretory product, sebum, by which mode?
a) Apocrine
b) Merocrine
c) Holocrine
d) Endocrine
View Answer
24. Which type of sweat glands are mainly present in the pubic and anal region?
a) Eccrine
b) Merocrine
c) Apocrine
d) Sebaceous
View Answer
25. What is the function of sebum secreted by sebaceous glands?
a) To regulate body temperature
b) To waterproof the skin
c) To produce pigmentation
d) To provide sensation
View Answer
26. Which part of the nail contains dividing cells for its growth?
a) Nail bed
b) Nail root
c) Nail plate
d) Nail groove
View Answer
27. What is the composition of the hair shaft’s outermost layer?
a) Dense compact keratinized cells
b) Cuboidal and flattened cells
c) Single layer of keratinized cells
d) Melanocytes
View Answer
28. Which layer of the skin is derived from mesoderm?
a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Hypodermis
d) Subcutaneous tissue
View Answer
29. Which gland is associated with hair follicles?
a) Eccrine gland
b) Merocrine gland
c) Sebaceous gland
d) Sweat gland
View Answer
30. What is the primary component of the dermis?
a) Loose connective tissue
b) Dense irregular connective tissue
c) Adipose tissue
d) Elastic fibers
View Answer
31. What cells are found in the dermis?
a) Melanocytes and keratinocytes
b) Fibrocytes, mast cells, and macrophages
c) Squamous cells and plasma cells
d) Adipocytes and chondrocytes
View Answer
32. What is the function of Meissner’s corpuscles?
a) Produce melanin
b) Produce sebum
c) Detect touch sensations
d) Secrete sweat
View Answer
33. Which layer of the skin is the thinnest?
a) Dermis
b) Hypodermis
c) Papillary layer
d) Reticular layer
View Answer
34. Which gland releases its secretion by the merocrine mode?
a) Apocrine gland
b) Sebaceous gland
c) Eccrine gland
d) Sweat gland
View Answer
35. What is the primary function of sweat glands?
a) Produce sebum
b) Regulate body temperature
c) Produce hair
d) Waterproof the skin
View Answer
36. Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves?
a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Hypodermis
d) Subcutaneous tissue
View Answer
37. What is the primary function of the arrector pili muscles?
a) Regulate body temperature
b) Produce sweat
c) Contract to raise hair follicles
d) Produce sebum
View Answer
38. What is the function of the hypodermis in relation to the dermis?
a) Provides sensation
b) Anchors the dermis to the underlying muscle or bone
c) Produces hair
d) Regulates body temperature
View Answer
39. Which part of the hair follicle contains dividing epithelial cells and melanocytes?
a) Internal epithelial sheath
b) External epithelial root sheath
c) Dermal papilla
d) Germinal matrix
View Answer
40. What is the composition of the nail plate?
a) Dense compact keratinized cells
b) Loose connective tissue
c) Melanocytes
d) Cuboidal and flattened cells
View Answer
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Histology Of Lymphatic System
1. What are the two main types of immune responses mentioned in the text?
a) Humoral and cellular
b) Primary and secondary
c) Bacterial and viral
d) Innate and adaptive
View Answer
2. Which cells are key elements in the immune response according to the text?
a) Macrophages
b) Neutrophils
c) Lymphocytes and APCs
d) Erythrocytes
View Answer
3. What is the composition of lymphatic tissue primarily made up of?
a) Epithelial cells
b) Reticular cells and fibers
c) Adipocytes
d) Osteocytes
View Answer
4. Where is diffuse lymphatic tissue typically found?
a) Enclosed in capsules
b) In the spleen
c) In the lamina propria of organs like the alimentary canal and respiratory tract
d) In the bone marrow
View Answer
5. What distinguishes primary lymphoid organs from secondary lymphoid organs?
a) Primary organs produce lymphocytes, while secondary organs act on lymphocytes
b) Primary organs are enclosed in capsules, while secondary organs are not
c) Primary organs are smaller in size than secondary organs
d) Primary organs are located in the thoracic cavity, while secondary organs are in the abdominal cavity
View Answer
6. What percentage of the body’s white blood cells do lymphocytes constitute?
a) 5-10%
b) 20-40%
c) 50-60%
d) 70-80%
View Answer
7. What are the two main types of lymphocytes mentioned in the text?
a) A and B cells
b) Red and white cells
c) Macrophages and dendritic cells
d) B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
View Answer
8. Which cells are considered potent antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?
a) Macrophages
b) Dendritic cells
c) B cells
d) T cells
View Answer
9. What is the microscopic structure of the thymus?
a) Single lobule structure
b) Consists of a cortex only
c) Contains connective tissue septa
d) Surrounded by adipose tissue
View Answer
10. What characterizes the cortex of the thymus?
a) Dense lymphatic tissue with abundant reticular cells
b) Loose connective tissue with sparse cells
c) Contains adipocytes
d) Surrounded by a thick capsule
View Answer
11. What are the cells in the cortex of the thymus sometimes referred to as?
a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils
c) Thymocytes or T-lymphocytes
d) Neutrophils
View Answer
12. What is the role of epithelial reticular cells in the thymus?
a) Secrete antibodies
b) Form part of the blood-thymic barrier
c) Produce cytokines
d) Phagocytose pathogens
View Answer
13. Which of the following is NOT a primary lymphoid organ?
a) Thymus
b) Spleen
c) Bone marrow
d) Bursa
View Answer
14. Where are dendritic cells typically found?
a) In the bone marrow
b) In the thymus
c) In lymph nodes
d) In the spleen
View Answer
15. What is the function of plasma cells?
a) Secrete cytokines
b) Produce lymphocytes
c) Release immunoglobulins (antibodies)
d) Phagocytose pathogens
View Answer
16. What structures are found in the medulla of the thymus?
a) Lymph nodules
b) Thymic corpuscles
c) Red pulp
d) White pulp
View Answer
17. What is the average diameter of Hassall’s corpuscles in the fully developed thymus?
a) 5-10 microns
b) 50-100 microns
c) 20-50 microns
d) 100-200 microns
View Answer
18. From which embryonic origin do reticular cells in the thymus arise?
a) Mesoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
View Answer
19. What cell types, in addition to lymphocytes and reticular cells, are present in the thymus?
a) Neutrophils
b) Macrophages, plasma cells, and mast cells
c) Eosinophils
d) Basophils
View Answer
20. What is the primary function of the thymus?
a) Production of red blood cells
b) Maturation and differentiation of T-lymphocytes
c) Synthesis of antibodies
d) Storage of platelets
View Answer
21. What is the largest lymph organ in the body?
a) Liver
b) Thymus
c) Spleen
d) Bone marrow
View Answer
22. What marks the entrance and exit of the splenic vessels in the spleen?
a) Capsule
b) Peritoneum
c) Hilum
d) Reticular tissue
View Answer
23. What type of tissue fills the spaces within the connective tissue framework of the spleen?
a) Reticular tissue
b) Adipose tissue
c) Cartilage
d) Splenic pulp
View Answer
24. Which type of cells line the venous sinuses in the spleen?
a) Reticular cells
b) Endothelial cells
c) Macrophages
d) Mast cells
View Answer
25. Which of the following is NOT a constituent of the red pulp in the spleen?
a) Monocytes
b) Plasma cells
c) Central Arteriole
d) Granular leucocytes
View Answer
26. What is the primary function of the spleen?
a) Producing antibodies
b) Filtering blood
c) Digesting erythrocytes
d) Storing iron
View Answer
27. Which cells in the spleen are responsible for engulfing and digesting worn-out erythrocytes?
a) Lymphocytes
b) Reticular cells
c) Macrophages
d) Neutrophils
View Answer
28. Where are lymph nodes primarily found in the body?
a) Muscles
b) Bones
c) Along lymphatic vessels
d) In the brain
View Answer
29. What is the structural composition of a lymph node?
a) Cartilage
b) Bone tissue
c) Lymphoid tissue
d) Adipose tissue
View Answer
30. Which type of lymph node cells increase in number following injection of toxins or trauma?
a) Lymphocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Reticular cells
d) Fibroblasts
View Answer
31. What type of lymphatic formation primarily lies in the blood rather than the lymph stream?
a) Lymph glands
b) Lymphoid tissues
c) Lymphatic vessels
d) Lymph sinuses
View Answer
32. What is the main function of lymphoid tissues in the alimentary tract?
a) Filtering blood
b) Producing antibodies
c) Absorbing nutrients
d) Removing foreign particles
View Answer
33. Which epithelium covers the palatine tonsils?
a) Keratinized
b) Stratified squamous non-keratinized
c) Simple squamous
d) Cuboidal
View Answer
34. What separates the crypts and lymphoid nodules in the palatine tonsils?
a) Blood vessels
b) Lymphatic vessels
c) Connective tissue septa
d) Nerve fibers
View Answer
35. Which tonsils are covered by a connective tissue capsule on the basal surface?
a) Pharyngeal tonsils
b) Palatine tonsils
c) Lingual tonsils
d) Tonsils in the esophagus
View Answer
36. What type of epithelium covers the pharyngeal tonsils?
a) Stratified squamous
b) Simple squamous
c) Pseudostratified columnar
d) Transitional epithelium
View Answer
37. What is the main function of the lymph nodes?
a) Producing hormones
b) Filtering lymph
c) Pumping blood
d) Storing oxygen
View Answer
38. Which cells are responsible for engulfing foreign particles in the spleen?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Lymphocytes
d) Neutrophils
View Answer
39. Which type of lymphatic tissue lies primarily in the blood rather than in the lymph stream?
a) Lymph glands
b) Lymphatic vessels
c) Lymph sinuses
d) Lymphoid tissues
View Answer
40. Which cells increase in number following injection of toxins or trauma in lymph nodes?
a) Lymphocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Reticular cells
d) Fibroblasts
View Answer
41. What is the primary function of lymphoid tissues in the alimentary tract?
a) Filtering blood
b) Producing antibodies
c) Absorbing nutrients
d) Removing foreign particles
View Answer
42. Which epithelium covers the lingual tonsils?
a) Keratinized
b) Simple squamous
c) Stratified squamous non-keratinized
d) Pseudostratified columnar
View Answer
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Cardiovascular System
1. What is the function of arteries in the circulatory system?
a) To return blood to the heart
b) To provide a medium for substance exchange between blood and tissues
c) To transport blood away from the heart
d) To store excess blood for emergencies
View Answer
2. Which layer of the heart consists mainly of cardiac muscle cells and intercalated discs?
a) Endocardium
b) Myocardium
c) Epicardium
d) Pericardium
View Answer
3. What is the primary function of the fibrous rings in the heart?
a) To separate the atria from the ventricles
b) To provide elasticity to the heart chambers
c) To regulate blood flow between the heart chambers
d) To provide structural support and electrical insulation
Answer: d) To provide structural support and electrical insulation
4. Which layer of the heart is described as the visceral layer of the pericardium?
a) Endocardium
b) Myocardium
c) Epicardium
d) Pericardium
View Answer
5. What is the main structural component of the lymph vessels?
a) Collagenous fibers
b) Elastic fibers
c) Endothelial cells
d) Muscle fibers
View Answer
6. Which chamber of the heart is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body?
a) Right Atrium
b) Right Ventricle
c) Left Atrium
d) Left Ventricle
View Answer
7. What structural feature separates the cardiac muscle of the atria from that of the ventricles?
a) Intercalated discs
b) Annuli Fibrosi
c) Fibrous rings
d) Purkinje Fibers
View Answer
8. Which layer of the heart contains collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, and blood vessels?
a) Endocardium
b) Myocardium
c) Epicardium
d) Pericardium
View Answer
9. What is the deepest layer of the endocardium called?
a) Mesothelium
b) Sub-endocardium
c) Intercalated disc
d) Annuli Fibrosi
View Answer
10. Which component is NOT typically found in the fibrous rings of the heart?
a) Collagenous fibers
b) Elastic fibers
c) Hyaline cartilage
d) Fat cells
View Answer
11. What is the innermost lining of an artery composed of?
A) Simple squamous epithelium
B) Smooth muscle cells
C) Collagen fibers
D) Elastic fibers
View Answer
12. Which layer of the artery contains a band of elastic fibers separating it from the media?
A) Endothelium
B) Intermediate layer
C) Internal elastic layer
D) Tunica adventitia
View Answer
13. In medium-sized arteries, what is the predominant component of the tunica media?
A) Collagen fibers
B) Smooth muscle cells
C) Elastic fibers
D) Reticular fibers
View Answer
14. What forms a boundary between the tunica media and adventitia in arteries?
A) External elastic lamina
B) Internal elastic lamina
C) Endothelium
D) Sub-endothelial loose C.T.
View Answer
15. What is the outermost covering of an artery composed of?
A) Collagen fibers
B) Elastic fibers
C) Smooth muscle cells
D) Areolar tissue
View Answer
16. Which type of arteries have a thicker tunica intima and more elastic fibers?
A) Muscular arteries
B) Elastic arteries
C) Arterioles
D) Capillaries
View Answer
17. What is a characteristic feature of muscular arteries?
A) Thin tunica media
B) Predominance of elastic fibers
C) Presence of valves
D) Thick tunica media with smooth muscle cells
View Answer
18. What is the composition of arterioles’ tunica intima?
A) Endothelium and collagen fibers
B) Endothelium and smooth muscle cells
C) Endothelium and elastic fibers
D) Endothelium and reticular fibers
View Answer
19. What is the diameter of capillaries approximately?
A) 8 millimeter
B) 8 centimeter
C) 8 micrometer
D) 8 meter
View Answer
20. Which type of capillary has the highest permeability?
A) Continuous capillaries
B) Fenestrated capillaries
C) Pores capillaries
D) Arteriole capillaries
View Answer
21. What is a distinguishing feature of veins compared to arteries?
A) Thicker tunica media
B) Presence of valves
C) Larger diameter
D) More elastic fibers
View Answer
22. What is the main constituent of the tunica adventitia in veins?
A) Smooth muscle cells
B) Collagen fibers
C) Elastic fibers
D) Reticular fibers
View Answer
23. Which layer of veins is the thickest?
A) Tunica intima
B) Tunica media
C) Tunica adventitia
D) Internal elastic lamina
View Answer
24. What is a distinguishing feature of post-capillary venules compared to capillaries?
A) Larger diameter
B) Thicker walls
C) Presence of valves
D) Complete tight junctions
View Answer
25. What is found between endothelial cells in post-capillary venules?
A) Tight junctions
B) Gap junctions
C) Incomplete tight junctions
D) Desmosomes
View Answer
26. Which type of veins have a well-marked internal elastic lamina?
A) Small veins
B) Medium-sized veins
C) Large veins
D) Venules
View Answer
27. What is the primary component of the tunica media in venules?
A) Smooth muscle cells
B) Elastic fibers
C) Collagen fibers
D) Endothelium
View Answer
28. What is a characteristic feature of the wall of small veins?
A) Presence of valves
B) Thick tunica adventitia
C) Thin tunica intima
D) Predominance of elastic fibers
View Answer
29. What is the role of valves in veins?
A) Facilitate diffusion
B) Control blood pressure
C) Direct blood flow towards the heart
D) Prevent backflow of blood
View Answer
30. Which layer of arteries contains several layers of smooth muscle cells?
A) Tunica intima
B) Tunica media
C) Tunica adventitia
D) Internal elastic lamina
View Answer
31. What is the composition of the tunica adventitia in veins?
A) Smooth muscle cells
B) Collagen fibers
C) Elastic fibers
D) Reticular fibers
View Answer
32. What is the primary component of the walls of arterioles?
A) Smooth muscle cells
B) Elastic fibers
C) Collagen fibers
D) Endothelium
View Answer
33. Which type of artery has a thinner tunica adventitia?
A) Elastic arteries
B) Muscular arteries
C) Arterioles
D) Capillaries
View Answer
34. What is the primary component of the walls of capillaries?
A) Smooth muscle cells
B) Elastic fibers
C) Collagen fibers
D) Endothelium
View Answer
35. Which type of capillary commonly occurs in the gastrointestinal tract?
A) Continuous capillaries
B) Fenestrated capillaries
C) Pores capillaries
D) Arteriole capillaries
View Answer
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Download Instructions
Download the PDF files containing the MCQs sets using the provided links above.
Allocate a suitable time to attempt each set of questions. Answer each question to the best of your knowledge. After completing each set, review your answers and identify areas for improvement. Utilize these MCQs as a tool for reinforcing your understanding of veterinary histology.
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