Infectious Bronchitis
1. What is the main difference between infectious bronchitis and avian encephalomyelitis?
A) Age of affected birds
B) Presence of respiratory symptoms
C) Presence of nervous signs
D) Egg production rate
2. Which vaccine type is produced by growing live virus in SPF eggs?
A) RB vaccine
B) Lasota strain vaccine
C) Newcastle disease killed vaccine
D) CDF-66 strain vaccine
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3. What is the primary purpose of using sodium hydroxide or lysol for disinfection?
A) Killing viruses
B) Killing bacteria
C) Neutralizing toxins
D) Removing organic matter
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4. What is the recommended timing for spraying viricidal disinfectant?
A) Immediately after arrival of chickens
B) 24 hours before arrival of chickens
C) 48-72 hours before arrival of chickens
D) 24 hours after arrival of chickens
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5. Which family does IBV belong to?
a) Paramyxoviridae
b) Coronaviridae
c) Orthomyxoviridae
d) Rhabdoviridae
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6. What is the primary genetic material of IBV?
a) Double-stranded DNA
b) Single-stranded DNA
c) Double-stranded RNA
d) Single-stranded RNA
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7. What is the typical size range of IBV?
a) 20-50 μm
b) 50-100 μm
c) 80-200 μm
d) 200-400 μm
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8. How many strains of IBV have been identified?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 24
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9. Which strains of IBV are grouped into Massachusetts or Connecticut strains?
a) Massachusetts
b) Connecticut
c) Both
d) None of the above
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10. Which test is used to determine serotypes of IBV?
a) Virus cultivation test
b) PCR test
c) Virus neutralization and haemagglutination inhibition test
d) ELISA
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11. What temperature is required to inactivate newly isolated IBV strains within 15-30 minutes?
a) 37°C
b) 45°C
c) 56°C
d) 65°C
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12. How long can chicken embryo adapted IBV strains remain stable at 56°C?
a) 1 hour
b) 2 hours
c) 3 hours
d) 4 hours
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13. Which organ system does IBV primarily affect?
a) Respiratory system
b) Digestive system
c) Nervous system
d) Circulatory system
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14. What is the mode of transmission of IBV?
a) Direct contact only
b) Aerosols and contaminated equipment
c) Fecal-oral route
d) Vector-borne
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15. Which age group of birds is most severely affected by IBV?
a) Chicks under 1 week old
b) Chicks between 1-4 weeks old
c) Birds over 10 weeks old
d) Mature laying birds
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16. What is the incubation period of IBV?
a) 6-12 hours
b) 18-30 hours
c) 36-48 hours
d) 3-5 days
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17. Which organ is primarily affected in the nephritic form of IBV?
a) Liver
b) Kidneys
c) Spleen
d) Lungs
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18. What is the characteristic clinical sign in laying birds infected with IBV?
a) Gasping and distressed breathing
b) Reduced egg production
c) Nasal discharge
d) Hoarse cough
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19. What type of lesions are typically observed in the respiratory tract of birds with IBV?
a) Serous exudate only
b) Catarrhal exudate only
c) Caseous exudate only
d) Serous, catarrhal, or caseous exudate
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20. Which test is recommended for preliminary screening of IBV?
a) Serum Neutralization Test
b) Agar Gel Precipitation Test
c) Complement Fixation Test
d) Fluorescence Antibody Test
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21. What is the primary method of control for IBV?
a) Antibiotic treatment
b) Vaccination
c) Quarantine
d) Sanitation measures
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23. What is the recommended schedule for the Avian Infectious Bronchitis Vaccine (living) Freeze-dried
B.P.?
a) Primary at 2 weeks, booster at 6 weeks
b) Primary at 21 days, booster at 6th and 14th week
c) Primary at 4-5 weeks, booster at 10-12 weeks
d) Primary at 2 weeks, booster at 4-5 weeks
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24. What is another name for Avian Infectious Bronchitis?
a) Avian Diptheria
b) Avian Influenza
c) Avian Leukosis
d) Avian Pox
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25. Which form of Avian Infectious Bronchitis is characterized by the presence of a diphtheritic mass
adhered to the larynx and trachea?
a) Acute form
b) Subacute form
c) Chronic form
d) Latent form
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26. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for the virus mentioned in the text?
a) Direct contact
b) Airborne transmission
c) Fomite transmission
d) Contaminated environment transmission
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27. What is the average duration for which the infected poultry shed remains infective even after removal
of infected birds?
a) 60 days
b) 90 days
c) 122 days
d) 150 days
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28. Which organ does the virus primarily target, leading to immune system distortion and destruction?
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Kidney
d) Cloacal bursa
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29. What is the main reason for the poor response of recovered birds to vaccines?
a) Genetic predisposition
b) Immune system overreaction
c) Destruction of immature lymphocytes
d) Lack of vaccination programs
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30. Which type of infection is characterized by less obvious clinical manifestations but high morbidity
rates?
a) Clinical infections
b) Sub-clinical infections
c) Acute infections
d) Chronic infections
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31. Which concurrent infection has been recorded alongside Very Virulent Infectious Bursal Disease
(VVIBD)?
a) Avian influenza
b) Newcastle disease
c) Infectious bronchitis
d) Coccidiosis
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32. What is the mortality rate range for clinical infections caused by the virus?
a) 5-10%
b) 10-20%
c) 20-30%
d) 30-40%
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33. Which organ shows primary lesions and atrophy due to the virus’s action?
a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Cloacal bursa
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34. What is the characteristic appearance of the cloacal bursa in Very Virulent Infectious Bursal Disease
(VVIBD)?
a) Swollen and edematous
b) Shrunken and pale
c) Enlarged with gelatinous yellow transudate
d) Normal appearance
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35. Which factor has been found responsible for suppressing immunity in chicks from the first week of
age, leading to poor vaccine uptake?
a) Environmental pollution
b) Aflatoxin in feed
c) Lack of sunlight exposure
d) Genetic predisposition
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Ranikhet Disease
1. What is the recommended age for the first dose of Nobi vac for early protection against the mentioned
viral disease in poultry?
A) 12 weeks
B) 9 weeks
C) 16 weeks
D) 20 weeks
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2. Which strain of the paramixogroup-I virus causes the most severe form of the viral disease in poultry?
A) Lentogenic
B) Mesogenic
C) Velogenic
D) Avirulent
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3. Which vital system is primarily affected by the lentogenic strain of the virus?
A) Respiratory system
B) Nervous system
C) Digestive system
D) Cardiovascular system
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4. What is the primary mode of transmission for the viral disease among poultry?
A) Direct contact with infected birds
B) Vertical transmission from parent to offspring
C) Airborne transmission
D) Contaminated feed and water
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5. Which birds are comparatively resistant to the mentioned viral disease?
A) Ducks and geese
B) Sparrows and kites
C) Pigeons and doves
D) Parrots and cockatiels
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6. What is the primary clinical manifestation of the mesogenic strain of the virus?
A) Greenish diarrhea
B) Gasping respiration
C) Wing paralysis
D) Chalky white diarrhea
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7. Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign commonly observed in adult birds infected with the
Newcastle disease?
A) Watery diarrhea
B) Hoarse breathing
C) Wing paralysis
D) Haemorrhagic conjunctivitis
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8. Which organ is NOT typically affected by the Newcastle disease?
A) Brain
B) Gizzard
C) Liver
D) Kidneys
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9. How is the virus primarily excreted by infected birds?
A) Urine
B) Feces
C) Respiratory droplets
D) Saliva
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10. Which term describes the condition of high mortality ascribed to the virulent strain of the virus?
A) Viral syndrome
B) Very Virulent New Castle disease (VVND)
C) Avian influenza
D) Infectious bronchitis
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11. What is the main characteristic of the Asiatic form of the mentioned viral disease?
A) High egg production
B) Low mortality
C) Severe respiratory and nervous signs
D) Greenish-white diarrhea
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12. Which factor does NOT influence the severity of the disease outbreak?
A) Immune status of the flock
B) Severity of exposure
C) Concurrent infections
D) Age of the infected bird
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13. What is the primary source of virus transmission in the mentioned viral disease outbreaks?
A) Wild birds
B) Infected eggs
C) Contaminated equipment
D) Human carriers
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14. What term is used to describe the condition of sudden death within a short time span in infected birds?
A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B) Acute avian viral syndrome (AAVS)
C) Acute death syndrome
D) Rapid onset mortality (ROM)
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15. Which organ shows hypertrophy of mesothelium in infected birds?
A) Liver
B) Gizzard
C) Proventriculus
D) Air sacs
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16. What is the primary diagnostic method based on the lesions observed in infected birds?
A) PCR analysis
B) Hemagglutination assay
C) Gross necropsy
D) Antibody titer test
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17. Which strain of the virus primarily affects adult birds?
A) Lentogenic
B) Mesogenic
C) Velogenic
D) Avirulent
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18. What is the characteristic lesion observed in the trachea of infected birds?
A) Hemorrhagic lesion
B) Ulceration
C) Bran-like deposition
D) Hyperplastic changes
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19. What term describes the process by which the virus primarily spreads through the fecal-oral route?
A) Vertical transmission
B) Horizontal transmission
C) Direct transmission
D) Indirect transmission
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20. Which diagnostic method involves inoculation of tissue suspension in embryonated eggs?
A) Haemagglutination test
B) Serological tests
C) PCR coupled with ELISA detection system
D) Isolation and identification of the virus
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21. What biochemical change is associated with the mesogenic strain of RD (NDV) virus?
A) Decrease in total serum protein
B) Increase in serum albumin
C) Increase in SGOT
D) Increase in cholesterol
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22. How is Newcastle disease killed vaccine administered?
A) Intraocular or nasal drop method
B) Intramuscular or subcutaneous injection
C) Drinking water method
D) Inhalation
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23. Which vaccine type is recommended for preventing RD characterized by neuroparalytic symptoms?
A) Lasota strain vaccine
B) RB vaccine
C) Newcastle disease killed vaccine
D) CDF-66 strain vaccine
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24. What precaution should be taken while using reconstituted vaccine?
A) Dispose of all leftover vaccine
B) Use within 2 hours from mixing
C) Shake the bottle frequently
D) Keep in ice-cold water during vaccination
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25. Which disease does not involve air sacculitis?
A) Newcastle disease
B) Infectious bronchitis
C) Avian encephalomyelitis
D) Avian influenza
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26. What is the characteristic clinical sign associated with the disease mentioned?
A) Cyanosis of comb
B) Twisting of neck
C) Diarrhea
D) Nasal discharge
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27. What is a recommended control measure for preventing the spread of the disease?
A) Treatment of sick birds
B) Allowing free entry of visitors
C) Using contaminated food and water
D) Strict biosecurity measures
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28. What is the primary means of diagnosis recommended by Aitken et al. (1977)?
A) Serological tests
B) Clinical signs observation
C) PCR coupled with ELISA
D) Post-mortem examination
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29. Which vaccine type is suggested for controlling the disease outbreak with a mild strain?
A) RB vaccine
B) Newcastle disease killed vaccine
C) CDF-66 strain vaccine
D) Lasota strain vaccine
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30. What is the age group most affected by avian encephalomyelitis?
A) Day-old chicks
B) Breeding flocks
C) Young birds
D) Adult birds
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31. Which vaccine is used to prevent RD characterized by neuroparalytic symptoms?
A) Lasota strain vaccine
B) RB vaccine
C) Newcastle disease killed vaccine
D) CDF-66 strain vaccine
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32. What is the recommended method for disposal of dead birds?
A) Incineration
B) Burying in soil
C) Segregation with bleaching powder
D) Feeding to other birds
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33. What is the primary means of control recommended for the disease?
A) Vaccination
B) Treatment of infected birds
C) Sanitary measures
D) Segregation of healthy birds
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Canine Distemper
1. Which of the following animal families are susceptible to distemper?
a) Felidae
b) Ursidae
c) Canidae
d) Equidae
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2. Which age group among Canidae is most susceptible to distemper?
a) 1-2 years
b) 6-9 months
c) 3-6 months
d) 2-4 years
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3. What is the primary mode of transmission of distemper virus in nature?
a) Ingestion of contaminated food
b) Direct contact with infected animals
c) Inhalation of droplets or aerosols
d) Transmission through ticks and fleas
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4. Which cells in the body are primarily targeted by the distemper virus?
a) Liver cells
b) Nerve cells
c) Muscle cells
d) Epithelial cells
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5. What is the characteristic temperature reaction observed in the initial phase of distemper?
a) Hypothermia
b) Hyperthermia with two peaks
c) Normothermia
d) No change in temperature
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6. Which form of distemper is characterized by oculonasal discharge and bronchopneumonia?
a) Pulmonary form
b) Digestive form
c) Occular form
d) Nervous form
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7. Which organ shows reduction in size and lymphocyte depletion in distemper?
a) Liver
b) Thymus
c) Spleen
d) Pancreas
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8. What clinical manifestation is observed in the nervous form of distemper?
a) Loss of appetite and vomiting
b) Swollen eyelids and conjunctivitis
c) Restlessness and convulsions
d) Rash and vesicles on the skin
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9. What is the term for the jerky movements of muscles observed in distemper?
a) Tachycardia
b) Bradycardia
c) Chorea
d) Tetany
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10. Which cells are found to be deposited in the myelinated zones of the brain in distemper?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Neutrophils
c) Lymphocytes
d) Astrocytes
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11. Which secondary bacterial infection is responsible for respiratory complications in distemper?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Bordetella bronchiseptica
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
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12. What is the characteristic skin condition observed in distemper affecting foot pads?
a) Erythema
b) Hyperkeratosis
c) Bullae formation
d) Ulceration
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13. Which laboratory test is crucial for the diagnosis of distemper?
a) Blood glucose test
b) Urinalysis
c) History of immunization
d) Serum antibody titer
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14. Which organ may show degenerative changes and inclusion bodies in distemper?
a) Heart
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Pancreas
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15. What is the common feature of the digestive form of distemper?
a) Hematuria
b) Diarrhea with blood
c) Ocular discharge
d) Nasal discharge
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16. Which group of animals can be infected experimentally with distemper virus according to research?
a) Birds
b) Reptiles
c) Rodents
d) Amphibians
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17. What is the characteristic pathological change seen in the lungs of animals with distemper?
a) Atelectasis
b) Emphysema
c) Interstitial pneumonia
d) Granulomatous inflammation
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18. Which age group shows the maximum case fatality rate in distemper?
a) Newborns
b) Juveniles
c) Adults
d) Seniors
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19. Which form of distemper is more prevalent than others?
a) Pulmonary form
b) Digestive form
c) Nervous form
d) Cutaneous form
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20. Which secondary bacterial infection may lead to the production of exudative pneumonia in distemper?
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Salmonella spp.
d) Clostridium perfringens
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21. What is the characteristic clinical manifestation of canine distemper virus infection?
a) Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in epithelial cells
b) Elevated serum transaminase activity
c) Decreased serum albumin levels
d) Presence of sialic acid in tissue samples
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22. Which technique is commonly employed to detect the presence of canine distemper virus antigen in tissue smears and sections?
a) ELISA
b) Fluorescent antibody technique
c) Western blot
d) PCR
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23. What is the primary method for isolating the canine distemper virus?
a) Serum neutralization test
b) Animal inoculation in dogs or ferrets
c) Lymphocyte stimulation assay
d) Fluorescent antibody technique
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24. Which of the following statements regarding treatment options for canine distemper virus infection is accurate?
a) Antiviral drugs are the primary treatment.
b) Symptomatic treatment is ineffective.
c) Injection of modified live virus vaccine is always helpful.
d) Anticanine distemper serum is the first-line treatment.
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25. What is the recommended age for the initial vaccination against canine distemper virus in pups?
a) 4-6 weeks
b) 6-8 weeks
c) 10-12 weeks
d) 14-16 weeks
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26. Which vaccine contains live distemper virus and inactivated canine viral hepatitis virus, among others?
a) Canilep-DHL
b) Candur-DH
c) Pentadog Vaccine
d) Vanguard 5L
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27. Which test offers a reliable clue for the demonstration of the canine distemper virus in tissue smears and sections?
a) Serum neutralization test
b) Animal inoculation
c) Fluorescent antibody technique
d) Lymphocyte stimulation assay
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28. What is the characteristic change observed in serum proteins during the early period and peak phase of canine distemper virus infection?
a) Decrease in alpha-2 fraction
b) Increase in serum albumin
c) Elevation of sialic acid concentration
d) Increase in gamma globulin
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29. Which vaccine confers immunity against distemper, canine hepatitis, and leptospirosis in dogs?
a) Candur-DHL
b) Canilep-DHL
c) Pentadog Vaccine
d) Vanguard 5L
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30. What is the primary method for diagnosing canine distemper during illness?
a) PCR of blood samples
b) Detection of inclusion bodies in the smear of respiratory tract cells
c) Serum neutralization test
d) Lymphocyte stimulation assay
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31. Which vaccine contains distemper virus, canine hepatitis virus, and inactivated culture of Leptospira canicola and L. icterohaemorrhagiae?
a) Canilep-DHL
b) Candur-DHL
c) Pentadog Vaccine
d) Vanguard 5L
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32. What is the recommended route for administering the initial dose of Canilep-DHL vaccine?
a) Intramuscular
b) Subcutaneous
c) Intravenous
d) Oral
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33. Which of the following is a symptom of neurological derangement in dogs with canine distemper virus infection?
a) Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies
b) Elevated serum transaminase activity
c) Epileptic seizures
d) Increase in alpha-2 fraction
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34. What is the primary component of the Rapigen Distemper Ag test kit?
a) 10 test devices and disposable pipettes
b) 10 disposable pipettes and 10 swabs
c) 10 test devices and instruction leaflet
d) 10 swabs and instruction leaflet
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35. Which vaccine is not recommended for pups aged 2 to 6 weeks?
a) Candur-DHL
b) Canilep-DHL
c) Pentadog Vaccine
d) Vanguard 5L
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36. What is the primary method for controlling respiratory complications in dogs with canine distemper virus infection?
a) Steam inhalation
b) Bronchodilator administration
c) Broad spectrum antibiotics
d) Mucinolytics
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37. What is the primary component of the Candur-DH vaccine?
a) Distemper virus and canine hepatitis virus
b) Canine hepatitis virus and leptospiral antigens
c) Distemper virus and inactivated leptospiral antigens
d) Canine hepatitis virus and rabies virus
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38. Which test demonstrates all-out suppression of lymphocyte stimulation in dogs with canine distemper virus infection?
a) Serum neutralization test
b) Animal inoculation
c) Fluorescent antibody technique
d) Lymphocyte stimulation assay
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39. Which vaccine is recommended for protecting dogs against distemper, canine hepatitis, leptospirosis, and rabies?
a) Canilep-DHL
b) Candur-DHL
c) Pentadog Vaccine
d) Vanguard 5L
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40. Which statement accurately describes the use of the Measle virus vaccine for protecting dogs against distemper?
a) It is recommended for pups younger than 6 weeks.
b) Immunity is established within 48 hours.
c) It confers immunity for 1 year.
d) It is not recommended for dogs with pre-existing health conditions.
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42. What is the primary mode of transmission of distemper virus in nature?
a) Direct contact with infected animals
b) Ingestion of contaminated food
c) Inhalation
d) Vector-borne transmission
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44. Which of the following animals can be experimentally infected with distemper virus?
a) Elephant
b) Cat
c) Giraffe
d) Horse
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45. Which cells in the body are primarily affected by the distemper virus?
a) Hepatocytes
b) Cardiomyocytes
c) Epithelial cells of respiratory and alimentary tract
d) Osteocytes
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47. Which clinical form of distemper is characterized by swollen eyelids and purulent discharge from the eyes?
a) Respiratory form
b) Digestive form
c) Ocular form
d) Nervous form
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48. What is a distinct feature of distemper in terms of blood cell count?
a) Leukocytosis
b) Erythrocytosis
c) Lymphocytosis
d) Lymphopaenia
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50. What is the characteristic skin condition associated with distemper?
a) Erythema
b) Xerosis
c) Hyperkeratosis
d) Bullae
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51. Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of distemper?
a) Conjunctivitis
b) Laminitis
c) Gastroenteritis
d) Chewing movements
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52. What histological changes are observed in the brain during distemper infection?
a) Hypertrophy
b) Neutrophil infiltration
c) Demyelination
d) Fibrosis
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53. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission of distemper?
a) Droplet inhalation
b) Ingestion of contaminated food
c) Direct skin contact
d) Vector-borne
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54. What is the primary target tissue for the distemper virus?
a) Muscle
b) Connective tissue
c) Epithelium
d) Bone
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55. Which form of distemper is more prevalent?
a) Digestive form
b) Ocular form
c) Respiratory form
d) Nervous form
View Answer
56. Which animal group shows resistance to distemper?
a) Indigenous breeds
b) Exotic breeds
c) Felines
d) Avians
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57. What is the characteristic diphasic temperature reaction seen in distemper?
a) A single prolonged fever spike
b) Two distinct fever spikes separated by a period of normal temperature
c) Gradual increase in temperature over time
d) Decrease in temperature followed by an increase
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58. What secondary bacterial infection is commonly associated with distemper?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Bordetella bronchiseptica
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Escherichia coli
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59. What is the characteristic nervous manifestation of distemper?
a) Depression
b) Excitement
c) Hyperactivity
d) Ataxia
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60. Which of the following is NOT a clinical finding of distemper?
a) Diarrhea
b) Vomiting
c) Jaundice
d) Bradycardia
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61. What is the primary method for diagnosing canine distemper during illness?
A) Animal inoculation
B) Serum neutralisation test
C) Detection of inclusion bodies
D) Fluorescent antibody technique
View Answer
62. Which of the following is a reliable aid in diagnosing canine distemper in living clinically affected dogs?
A) Serum neutralisation test
B) Animal inoculation
C) Detection of inclusion bodies
D) Lymphocyte stimulation test
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63. Which diagnostic method employs tissue smears and sections to detect viral antigen?
A) Animal inoculation
B) Fluorescent antibody technique
C) Serum neutralisation test
D) Lymphocyte stimulation test
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64. What is a notable feature of canine distemper virus isolation in susceptible pups or ferrets?
A) Formation of giant cells
B) Presence of intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies
C) Elevated transaminase activity
D) Decreased serum albumin
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65. Which test can be performed in embryonated hen’s eggs to detect neutralizing antibodies?
A) Animal inoculation
B) Serum neutralisation test
C) Fluorescent antibody technique
D) Lymphocyte stimulation test
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66. What serum protein alteration is observed during the early phase of canine distemper?
A) Decrease in alpha-2 fraction
B) Increase in serum albumin
C) Decrease in transaminase activity
D) Increase in alpha-2 fraction
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67. Which body fluid shows an increase in protein cells, gamma globulin, and IgG in dogs with distemper encephalitis?
A) Serum
B) Urine
C) Cerebrospinal fluid
D) Synovial fluid
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68. What test demonstrates all-out suppression of lymphocyte stimulation in dogs with distemper virus infection?
A) Serum neutralisation test
B) Animal inoculation
C) Fluorescent antibody technique
D) Lymphocyte stimulation test
View Answer
69. Which commercial diagnostic kit is used to detect canine distemper virus antigen?
A) Rapigen Distemper Ag test
B) Vanguard 5L
C) Candur-DHL Vaccine
D) Canilep-DHL
View Answer
70. What is the primary treatment approach for canine distemper?
A) Antiviral drugs
B) Anticanine distemper serum
C) Symptomatic treatment
D) Vaccination
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71. What may be administered initially upon diagnosing a case of canine distemper?
A) Antiviral drugs
B) Symptomatic treatment
C) Modified live virus vaccine
D) Anticanine distemper serum
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72. Which treatment method aims to combat respiratory complications in dogs with distemper?
A) Antiviral drugs
B) Steam inhalation
C) Antidiarrheal preparations
D) Anticonvulsants
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73. What drugs may be used to control neurological derangement in dogs with distemper?
A) Bronchodilators
B) Mucinolytics
C) Sedatives and anticonvulsants
D) Antibiotics
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74. What vitamins and supplements are recommended for restoration of vitality in dogs with distemper?
A) Vitamin A and E
B) Vitamin D and K
C) Water-soluble B-vitamins and vitamin-C
D) Calcium and magnesium
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75. Which preventive measure is crucial for controlling distemper in dogs?
A) Ectoparasitic treatment only
B) Endoparasitic treatment only
C) Both ectoparasitic and endoparasitic treatment
D) Vaccination
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76. Which vaccine confers immunity against distemper, canine hepatitis, and leptospirosis?
A) Tissue culture vaccine
B) Distemper and canine hepatitis vaccine
C) Combined vaccine against multiple diseases
D) Measle virus vaccine
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77. What is the primary route for administering the Candur-DH vaccine?
A) Intramuscular
B) Subcutaneous
C) Oral
D) Intravenous
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78. Which vaccine is not recommended for pups younger than 6 weeks old?
A) Candur-DH Vaccine
B) Candur-DH
C) Canilep-DHL
D) Pentadog Vaccine
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79. What is the recommended timing for the initial vaccination with Pentadog Vaccine?
A) 4-6 weeks of age
B) 6-8 weeks of age
C) 8-10 weeks of age
D) 10-12 weeks of age
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80. Which commercial vaccine contains freeze-dried distemper, canine hepatitis, and leptospiral liquid vaccine?
A) Candur-DHL Vaccine
B) Candur-DH
C) Canilep-DHL
D) Pentadog Vaccine
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Avian Influenza
1. What is the primary cause of avian influenza in birds?
a) Type B strains of the influenza virus
b) Type C strains of the influenza virus
c) Type D strains of the influenza virus
d) Type A strains of the influenza virus
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2. Which of the following is NOT a method for confirming avian influenza?
a) Agar gel diffusion test
b) Immunofluorescence test
c) Virus neutralization test
d) Western blotting
View Answer
3. What is the recommended treatment for avian influenza in birds?
a) Antiviral medication
b) Antibiotics
c) Symptomatic treatment for liver and kidney disorders
d) Vaccination
View Answer
4. Which of the following is NOT a measure for controlling the spread of avian influenza?
a) Strict hygiene and sanitation measures
b) Vaccination of all poultry birds
c) Depopulation of affected birds
d) Thorough disinfection of personnel and equipment
View Answer
5. What is the primary method for disposing of dead birds during an avian influenza outbreak?
a) Burial
b) Composting
c) Burning
d) Dumping in water bodies
View Answer
6. Which type of influenza virus is responsible for all outbreaks of the highly pathogenic form of avian
influenza?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type C
d) Type D
View Answer
7. What are the two important surface antigenic proteins of the influenza virus?
a) Hemoglobin and myoglobin
b) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
c) Albumin and globulin
d) Collagen and elastin
View Answer
8. What is the main method for classification of influenza viruses into different subtypes?
a) DNA sequencing
b) Electron microscopy
c) Analysis of surface proteins
d) Serological tests
View Answer
9. Which type of avian influenza virus is considered the highly virulent form?
a) Low Pathogenic Avian Influenza (LPAI)
b) Type A
c) Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI)
d) Type C
View Answer
10. How do influenza viruses primarily spread among birds?
a) Mosquito bites
b) Direct contact with infected birds
c) Inhalation of contaminated air
d) Ingestion of contaminated water
View Answer
11. What is the role of quails in the spread of avian influenza?
a) They are immune to the virus
b) They act as a reservoir for both avian and human viruses
c) They transmit the virus through their feces
d) They help in controlling the population of infected birds
View Answer
12. Which of the following is NOT a subtype of avian influenza virus commonly found in poultry birds
according to OIE?
a) H5N1
b) H9N2
c) H16N8
d) H3N3
View Answer
13. What is the significance of the segmented nature of the influenza virus genome?
a) It allows for easy identification of the virus
b) It facilitates the exchange of gene segments between different viral strains
c) It makes the virus resistant to antiviral medications
d) It decreases the virulence of the virus
View Answer
14. Which term refers to the process of minor antigenic change in influenza viruses through point mutation?
a) Antigenic shift
b) Antigenic drift
c) Viral reassortment
d) Genetic mutation
View Answer
a) 1959
b) 1977
c) 1997
d) 2006
View Answer
16. What is the primary natural reservoir of influenza viruses, contributing to outbreaks in commercial
flocks?
a) Rodents
b) Waterfowl and seabirds
c) Cattle
d) Amphibians
View Answer
17. Which of the following is NOT a potential reservoir for influenza viruses?
a) Migratory exotic birds
b) Live bird markets
c) Commercial cattle farms
d) Swine facilities
View Answer
18. How long can influenza virus particles survive without a host?
a) Up to one day
b) Up to one week
c) Up to one month
d) Up to one hour
View Answer
19. What conditions favor the survival of influenza viruses for months?
a) Warm conditions
b) Dry conditions
c) Cold conditions
d) Humid conditions
View Answer
20. Which of the following is NOT a common mode of transmission of avian influenza among birds?
a) Direct contact with infected birds
b) Contact with contaminated surfaces
c) Egg transmission
d) Spread through well-cooked meat
View Answer
21. Which subtype of Avian Influenza virus is associated with huge outbreaks and nearly 100% mortality
in birds?
a) H1N1
b) H5N1
c) H9N2
d) H3N8
View Answer
22. How do birds primarily get infected with avian influenza virus?
a) Through ingestion of contaminated water
b) Through skin contact with infected birds
c) Via the lower respiratory tract
d) Via the upper respiratory tract, conjunctiva, or digestive tract
View Answer
23. Which form of Avian Influenza is characterized by mild to moderate respiratory distress and a
mortality rate of less than 5%?
a) Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI)
b) Low Pathogenic Avian Influenza (LPAI)
c) Moderately Pathogenic Avian Influenza (MPAI)
d) Avian Influenza with Comorbidities (AIC)
View Answer
24. What is the main clinical sign of birds infected with Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI)?
a) Decreased egg production
b) Neurological symptoms
c) Respiratory distress
d) Skin discoloration
View Answer
25. How does the influenza virus enter the host cell?
a) Through passive diffusion
b) By direct injection of viral RNA
c) Via endocytosis after binding to epithelial cells
d) By breaking down the cell membrane
View Answer
26. What is a common clinical finding in free-living wild birds carrying influenza viruses?
a) Severe neurological symptoms
b) Complete absence of symptoms
c) Mild to moderate respiratory distress
d) Hemorrhagic lesions on the skin
View Answer
27. Which diagnostic method is considered the test of choice for global influenza surveillance by the WHO?
a) Reverse Transcriptase-Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR)
b) Hemagglutination Inhibition (HAI) assay
c) Neuraminidase assay
d) Directigen Flu A and B Kit
View Answer
28. What is the primary method for isolating influenza viruses in cell culture?
a) Inoculation of embryonated chicken eggs
b) Inoculation of Madin-Darby Canine Kidney (MDCK) cells
c) Direct detection by Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)
d) Agar Gel Precipitation Test (AGP)
View Answer
29. What criterion distinguishes Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) from Low Pathogenic Avian Influenza (LPAI)?
a) Mortality rate exceeding 50%
b) Presence of neurological symptoms
c) Virulence in cell culture without trypsin
d) Resistance to antibiotics
View Answer
30. Which laboratory in India has been entrusted with diagnosing Avian Influenza virus with Bio-safety
level-4 (BSL-4) facilities?
a) Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI)
b) National Institute of Virology (NIV)
c) High Security Animal Disease Laboratory (HSADL)
d) Central Avian Research Institute (CARI)
View Answer
31. Which of the following measures is NOT recommended for controlling avian influenza outbreaks?
A) Routine serologic monitoring
B) Early reporting of outbreaks
C) Use of live attenuated vaccines
D) Strict biosecurity measures
View Answer
32. What was the immediate action taken upon confirmation of avian influenza outbreak in Navapur,
India in 2006?
A) Immediate culling of infected stocks
B) Implementation of controlled marketing of birds
C) Ban on import of poultry products
D) Vaccination of exposed villagers
View Answer
33. What is the purpose of identifying an alert zone within a 10 km radius of an affected place during an
avian influenza outbreak?
A) To implement strict biosecurity measures
B) To declare absolute ban on movement of poultry
C) To notify Panchayat authorities and enforce restrictions
D) To conduct vaccination programs
View Answer
34. Which influenza virus subtype is NOT associated with human pandemics?
A) H5N1
B) H3N2
C) H7N7
D) H1N1
View Answer
35. What is the primary method of transmission of avian influenza virus to humans according to the text?
A) Direct contact with diseased birds
B) Consumption of undercooked eggs
C) Inhalation of infected aerosols
D) Bite from infected pigs
View Answer
36. What precautionary measure is advised for handling suspected or dead birds during an avian influenza
outbreak?
A) Immediate necropsy in the field
B) Handling by untrained personnel
C) Transportation without proper packaging
D) Burial without decontamination
View Answer
37. How does avian influenza virus adapt to infect humans?
A) Through direct transmission from birds to humans
B) By developing resistance to antiviral medications
C) Via genetic reassortment with human influenza virus
D) Through mutation of the viral genome
View Answer
38. Which organization has staged a network called INFOSAN to eradicate avian influenza?
A) World Health Organization (WHO)
B) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
D) World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)
View Answer
39. What is the recommended temperature for cooking meat to inactivate the avian influenza virus?
A) 60°C
B) 100°C
C) 50°C
D) 70°C or above
View Answer
40. Why is it hazardous to slaughter dead or sick birds at home during an avian influenza outbreak?
A) It increases the risk of spreading the virus to humans
B) It reduces the effectiveness of antiviral medications
C) It leads to contamination of other food items
D) It promotes genetic reassortment of the virus
View Answer
41. What is the role of designated Veterinary Officers during an avian influenza outbreak?
A) Conducting vaccination programs
B) Handling media briefings
C) Enforcing legislative measures
D) Carrying out required steps as per the Action Plan
View Answer
42. What precaution is advised for handling children during an avian influenza outbreak?
A) Encouraging them to play near infected birds
B) Educating them about the symptoms of avian influenza
C) Keeping them away from dead or sick birds
D) Involving them in culling activities
View Answer
43. What is the recommended method for disposal of dead birds during an avian influenza outbreak?
A) Incineration at the site
B) Burying without precautions
C) Leaving them for scavengers
D) Double packing and burial with decontamination
View Answer
44. How does avian influenza virus infect humans according to the text?
A) Through ingestion of contaminated water
B) Through inhalation of infected air
C) Through direct contact with infected birds or pigs
D) Through bites of infected mosquitoes
View Answer
45. What is the purpose of the INFOSAN network established by WHO?
A) To monitor global weather patterns
B) To eradicate avian influenza in wild bird populations
C) To facilitate international cooperation in food safety
D) To conduct research on genetic reassortment in influenza viruses
View Answer
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Chicken Infectious Anaemia
1. What is the causative agent of Chicken Infectious Anaemia (CIA)? a) Influenza virus
b) Circovirus
c) Coronavirus
d) Retrovirus
View Answer
2. What is the primary mode of transmission for Chicken Infectious Anaemia Virus (CIAV)?a) Vertical
transmission only
b) Horizontal transmission only
c) Both vertical and horizontal transmission
d) Vector-borne transmission
View Answer
3. Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of CIAV infection in young chickens? a) Anorexia
b) Polyuria
c) Depression
d) Anaemia
View Answer
4. What is the approximate mortality rate associated with CIAV infection in affected chickens?
a) 30%
b) 50%
c) 10%
d) 90%
View Answer
5. Which organ experiences severe atrophy in chickens infected with CIAV?
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Kidney
d) Thymus
View Answer
6. What is the size range of the Circovirus responsible for CIAV? a) 10-15 μm
b) 20-30 μm
c) 17-25 μm
d) 5-10 μm
View Answer
7. Which of the following is a characteristic histopathological change associated with CIAV infection?
a)Hypertrophy of lymphoid organs
b) Proliferation of erythroid cells in bone marrow
c) Generalized lymphoid atrophy
d) Hyperplasia of the bursa of Fabricius
Answer: c) Generalized lymphoid atrophy
8. What factor influences morbidity and mortality in CIAV infection? a) Presence of secondary fungal infections
b) Virulence of CIAV strain
c) Environmental temperature fluctuations
d) Genetic predisposition of the chicken
View Answer
9. Which virus, when co-infecting with CIAV, can enhance morbidity and mortality due to
immunosuppression?
a) Avian influenza virus
b) Infectious bronchitis virus
c) Marek’s disease virus
d) Reticuloendotheliosis virus
View Answer
10. What is the approximate incubation period of CIAV under experimental conditions?
a) 3-5 days
b) 8-10 days
c) 14-16 days
d) 20-22 days
View Answer
11. How does CIAV primarily affect the host’s immune system?
a) By stimulating an exaggerated immune response
b) By targeting and destroying T-lymphocytes
c) By enhancing the production of antibodies
d) By inducing inflammation in lymphoid organs
View Answer
12. Which of the following is NOT a recommended method for controlling CIAV spread?
a) Vaccination of breeder flocks
b) Implementing strict biosecurity measures
c) Disinfecting contaminated surfaces with cold water
d) Proper disposal of contaminated materials
View Answer
13. What is the characteristic appearance of the liver in chickens infected with CIAV? a) Swelling and mottled appearance
b) Yellow discoloration
c) Abscess formation
d) Fatty degeneration
View Answer
14. Which of the following is a significant feature of CIAV infection in chickens? a) Increased appetite
b) Enhanced growth rate
c) Immunosuppression
d) Resistance to secondary infections
View Answer
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Feline Panleukopenia
1. What is the primary mode of transmission of the virus among cats?
a) Airborne transmission
b) Transmission through contaminated water
c) Direct contact with infected cats
d) Vector-borne transmission
View Answer
2. How long can the virus survive in the environment?
a) Up to 3 months
b) Up to 6 months
c) More than one year
d) Indefinitely
View Answer
3. Which organ does the virus primarily target after entering the cat’s body?
a) Liver
b) Kidneys
c) Intestines
d) Lungs
View Answer
4. What clinical signs are typically associated with the disease in infected cats?
a) Lethargy and increased appetite
b) Fever and increased thirst
c) Coughing and sneezing
d) Weight gain and decreased urination
View Answer
5. What is the mortality rate range mentioned in the text for this disease?
a) 10-25%
b) 25-50%
c) 50-75%
d) 75-100%
View Answer
6. Which tissue exhibits characteristic changes in gross appearance during the disease?
a) Brain
b) Heart
c) Intestines
d) Lungs
View Answer
7. What diagnostic method is suggested based on clinical signs and vaccination history?
a) Blood culture
b) PCR testing
c) Histopathology
d) Serological testing
View Answer
8. What is the recommended treatment for infected cats?
a) Antiviral medication
b) Supportive care and antibiotics
c) Surgical intervention
d) Immunomodulators
View Answer
9. Which type of vaccine is recommended for pregnant queens?
a) Live vaccine
b) Killed vaccine
c) Both live and killed vaccines
d) No vaccination is recommended during pregnancy
View Answer
10. What is a disadvantage of live vaccines mentioned in the text?
a) They induce rapid protection
b) They are safe for pregnant queens
c) They do not overcome maternal antibody interference
d) They do not produce cerebellar hypoplasia in kittens
View Answer
11. At what age should initial vaccination be administered to kittens?
a) 6-8 weeks
b) 10-12 weeks
c) 12-16 weeks
d) 16-20 weeks
View Answer
12. Which commercial vaccine provides protection against multiple feline diseases?
a) Nobivac Feline Leukemia Vaccine
b) Nobivac Rabies Vaccine
c) Nobivac Tricat Vaccine
d) Nobivac FeLV Vaccine
View Answer
13. How should the Nobivac Tricat vaccine be administered?
a) Orally
b) Intravenously
c) Subcutaneously or intramuscularly
d) Intradermally
View Answer
14. What is the suggested dosage for the Pel-o-Vax IV combined killed vaccine?
a) 0.5 ml
b) 1 ml
c) 2 ml
d) 5 ml
View Answer
15. How long should a non-protected cat be quarantined in a cattery before entry?
a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks
View Answer
16. What is the primary purpose of annual booster vaccinations?
a) To provide initial immunity
b) To prevent secondary bacterial infections
c) To maintain immunity levels
d) To induce rapid protection
View Answer
17. What type of vaccine is recommended for overcoming maternal antibody interference?
a) Live vaccine
b) Killed vaccine
c) Both live and killed vaccines
d) DNA vaccine
View Answer
18. What is the main disadvantage of killed vaccines?
a) They induce rapid protection
b) They are safe for pregnant queens
c) They may produce cerebellar hypoplasia in kittens
d) They do not overcome maternal antibody interference
View Answer
19. What supportive treatment is recommended for combating dehydration in infected cats?
a) Antiemetics
b) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
c) Fluid therapy
d) Oral medication
View Answer
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Infectious Canine Hepatitis
1. Which of the following animals are important species susceptible to canine hepatitis virus infection?
A) Cats and rats
B) Dogs and foxes
C) Ferrets and raccoons
D) Cattle and pigs
View Answer
2. What is the primary mode of transmission for canine hepatitis virus?
A) Droplets
B) Direct contact with infected animals
C) Ingestion of contaminated urine, saliva, or feces
D) Airborne particles
View Answer
3. Which of the following animals is experimentally susceptible to canine hepatitis virus infection?
A) Ferrets
B) Raccoons
C) Pigs
D) Chickens
View Answer
4. What is a characteristic clinical sign of acute infectious canine hepatitis?
A) Profuse nasal discharge
B) Enlarged tonsils
C) “Tucked up” condition of the abdomen
D) Rapid respiration
View Answer
5. What ocular manifestation is associated with the initial phase of convalescence in dogs recovering from
acute hepatitis?
A) Cataracts
B) Corneal opacity (Hepatitis blue eye)
C) Glaucoma
D) Retinal detachment
View Answer
6. Which of the following is NOT a form of infectious canine hepatitis?
A) Acute
B) Per-acute
C) Chronic
D) Inapparent
View Answer
7. What organ shows characteristic changes such as enlargement, mottling, and fibrinous exudation in dogs affected by infectious canine hepatitis?
A) Lungs
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Kidneys
View Answer
8. What diagnostic test helps in identifying canine hepatitis even in cases of animal decomposition?
A) Gel diffusion test
B) Complement fixation test
C) Neutralization test
D) Animal inoculation test
View Answer
9. Which virus is resistant to canine hepatitis virus inoculation in ferrets?
A) Canine distemper virus
B) Parvovirus
C) Leptospira
D) Adenovirus
View Answer
10. What is a differential diagnostic feature between infectious canine hepatitis and warfarin poisoning?
A) Presence of leukopenia
B) Intranasal discharge
C) Prolonged clotting time
D) Enlarged tonsils
View Answer
11. Which of the following diseases is caused by Strepto or Staphylococcus and may present with coughing and nasal discharge, often secondary to viral infections?
A) Leptospirosis
B) Distemper
C) Tonsillitis
D) Parvovirus infection
View Answer
12. What is a specific clinical sign of distemper that helps differentiate it from infectious canine hepatitis?
A) “Tucked up” abdomen
B) Thin thready pulse
C) Corneal opacity
D) Hemorrhagic spots on the skin
View Answer
13. Which of the following tests helps diagnose leptospirosis?
A) Gel diffusion test
B) Complement fixation test
C) Fluorescent antibody test
D) Animal inoculation test
View Answer
14. What treatment is recommended for severe cases of infectious canine hepatitis?
A) Antiviral medication
B) Blood transfusion
C) Steroids
D) Vaccination
View Answer
15. What is the primary method of control for preventing infectious canine hepatitis?
A) Antibiotic treatment
B) Isolation of infected animals
C) Hygiene measures
D) Vaccination
View Answer
16. What is the duration of shedding of virus in recovered dogs?
A) Up to 1 month
B) Up to 3 months
C) Up to 6 months
D) Up to 12 months
View Answer
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Parvo Virus Infection In Dog
1. Which breed is considered at higher risk for parvovirus infection?
A) Labrador
B) Beagle
C) Bulldog
D) Poodle
View Answer
2. Which of the following organs shows interstitial keratitis following virus inoculation in raccoons and ferrets?
A) Liver
B) Eyes
C) Lungs
D) Spleen
View Answer
3. What percentage of mortality is expected in infectious canine hepatitis cases?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
View Answer
4. What type of reaction may occur 1 to 3 weeks after injection of live virus vaccine against infectious canine hepatitis?
A) Allergic corneal and iridial reaction
B) Anaphylactic shock
C) Fever
D) Localized swelling at the injection site
View Answer
5. What is the primary mode of transmission for canine parvovirus?
A) Airborne droplets
B) Contaminated water sources
C) Direct contact with infected animals or their excretions
D) Mosquito bites
View Answer
6. Which statement accurately describes the pathogenesis of canine parvovirus?
A) The virus primarily targets the central nervous system
B) Maternal antibodies passed in colostrum prevent infection in newborns
C) Viral replication occurs in mature cells of various organs
D) The virus has a preference for cells undergoing mitosis, affecting primarily young dogs
View Answer
7. What is a significant factor hindering active immunization with the parvovirus vaccine?
A) Age of the dog
B) Breed of the dog
C) Presence of natural infection and maternal antibodies
D) Previous vaccination history
View Answer
8. Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of parvovirus enteritis in dogs?
A) Respiratory distress
B) Renal failure
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Haemorrhagic diarrhoea
View Answer
9. How can a tentative diagnosis of canine parvovirus infection be made?
A) Based solely on clinical symptoms
B) Through microscopic examination of fecal samples
C) By observing behavioral changes in the dog
D) Using a combination of clinical symptoms and laboratory tests
View Answer
10. What diagnostic method involves the detection of viral antigen in canine feces during acute illness?
A) Animal inoculation test
B) Haemagglutination test
C) ELISA
D) Rapigen Parvo Ag test
View Answer
11. Which treatment option may yield promising results in the initial phase of parvovirus infection?
A) Antiviral medications
B) Fluid and electrolyte therapy
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
D) Use of heterologous immunoglobulin
View Answer
12. What is the primary goal of treatment for canine parvovirus infection?
A) Eradication of the virus from the body
B) Symptomatic relief and supportive care
C) Restoration of normal gastrointestinal function
D) Prevention of secondary bacterial infections
View Answer
13. What control measure is recommended for managing an outbreak of parvovirus in a kennel?
A) Segregation of infected animals
B) Vaccination of all dogs in the kennel
C) Euthanasia of infected animals
D) Quarantine of the entire kennel facility
View Answer
14. Which type of vaccine is Parvocine, manufactured by M/s Serum Institute of India, based on?
A) Inactivated heterologous antigen
B) Attenuated live heterologous antigen
C) Inactivated homologous antigen
D) Attenuated live homologous antigen
View Answer
15. What is the recommended method of immunization for puppies less than 3 months old with the
Parvocine vaccine?
A) Intravenous injection
B) Intramuscular injection
C) Subcutaneous injection
D) Oral administration
View Answer
16. Which statement accurately describes the method of action of the Parvocine vaccine?
A) It provides immediate immunity upon administration
B) It stimulates the production of maternal antibodies in newborns
C) It triggers an immune response against the virus without causing disease
D) It directly targets and kills the parvovirus in infected animals
View Answer
17. What clinical finding is suggestive of myocardial involvement in a dog with parvovirus infection?
A) Elevated body temperature
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Wave depression on ECG
D) Increased blood pressure
View Answer
18. Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for severe vomiting in dogs with parvovirus
infection?
A) Metoclopramide administration
B) Fluid and electrolyte therapy
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
D) Immediate feeding with solid food
View Answer
19. What is the primary method of diagnosing parvovirus infection in laboratory settings?
A) Animal inoculation test
B) Serum neutralization test
C) Isolation of virus from fecal samples
D) Haemagglutination test
View Answer
20. How do maternal antibodies passed in colostrum affect the vaccination of puppies against parvovirus?
A) They enhance the effectiveness of the vaccine
B) They prevent the vaccine from eliciting an immune response
C) They have no effect on the vaccination process
D) They delay the onset of immunity following vaccination
View Answer
21. What is the most common cause of death in dogs with parvovirus myocarditis?
A) Dehydration
B) Kidney failure
C) Cardiogenic shock
D) Respiratory failure
View Answer
22. Which diagnostic method can detect specific IgM antibodies indicative of recent parvovirus infection?
A) Haemagglutination inhibition test
B) Fluorescence antibody technique
C) ELISA
D) Serum neutralization test
View Answer
23. What is the duration of immunity provided by the Parvocine vaccine according to available records?
A) Unknown
B) Less than one year
C) Over 18 months
D) Lifelong
View Answer
24. How does canine parvovirus primarily spread in breeding establishments, pet shops, and clinics?
A) Through contaminated air
B) Through contaminated water sources
C) Via indirect contact with fomites
D) Through direct contact with infected animals or their excretions
View Answer
25. Which family of animals is mentioned as susceptible to the virus discussed in the text?
a) Canidae
b) Felidae
c) Procyonidae
d) Viverridae
View Answer
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