Welcome to our MCQs Assessment series! In this post, we provide the Animal Breeding And Genetics MCQs With Answers PDF Free Download to help you evaluate your understanding and mastery of animal breeding and genetics. You can also practice quizzes on different topics that are listed in the given table of contents. These questions are designed to cover key concepts and topics within the subject area, serving as an excellent resource for self-assessment and review.
History of Genetics
1. Who revolutionized our understanding of species variability and evolution in the mid-19th century?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Theodore Dobzhansky
D) Watson and Crick
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2. Which scientist is known for summarizing his research on peas and describing the unit of heredity as a
particle that does not change?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Wallace
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Avery
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3. Mendel’s approach to understanding genetic inheritance involved:
A) Studying only observable phenotypes
B) Cross-breeding individuals with identical phenotypes
C) Crossing individuals with variable phenotypes and following them through successive generations
D) Ignoring statistical analysis
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4. Who predicted that the hereditary material was located in the nucleus?
A) Darwin
B) Wallace
C) Haeckel
D) Mendel
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5. Which of the following is NOT true regarding Mendel’s principles?
A) They were largely unnoticed until the early 20th century
B) They provided a foundation for understanding genetic inheritance
C) They were quickly accepted and integrated into mainstream biology
D) They focused primarily on observable traits rather than underlying genetic factors
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6. The chromosomal theory of inheritance focused on:
A) The role of proteins in genetic transmission
B) The role of chromosomes in heredity
C) The importance of environmental factors in gene expression
D) The concept of blending inheritance
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7. Who determined that DNA, not protein or RNA, was the genetic material?
A) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
B) Watson and Crick
C) Hershey and Chase
D) Mendel
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8. The structure of DNA was determined by:
A) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
B) Watson and Crick
C) Hershey and Chase
D) Darwin and Wallace
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9. What did the experiments of the early 19th century confirm regarding Mendelian principles?
A) They could not be extended to other gene systems
B) They could only be applied to plants, not animals
C) They provided evidence for the Modern synthesis
D) They disproved the concept of natural selection
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10. Which concept states that mutations create variation, recombination develops new forms, and
variation is acted upon by natural selection?
A) Mendelian genetics
B) Central dogma of molecular biology
C) Modern synthesis
D) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
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11. What did the transformation experiments of Griffith demonstrate?
A) The role of chromosomes in heredity
B) The existence of the genetic code
C) The conversion of a non-lethal strain of bacteria into a lethal strain
D) The importance of protein in genetic transmission
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12. Who determined that DNA contained the genetic code?
A) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
B) Watson and Crick
C) Hershey and Chase
D) Mendel
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13. What concept did Crick develop based on experiments involving transcription and translation?
A) Mendelian genetics
B) Central dogma of molecular biology
C) Modern synthesis
D) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
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14. Which of the following is NOT a principle of the Modern synthesis?
A) Mutations create variation
B) Recombination develops new forms
C) Variation is acted upon by environmental constraints
D) Natural selection acts on variation to produce more fit individuals
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15. What was the flaw in the experiments of Hershey and Chase?
A) They used the wrong type of bacteria
B) They did not consider the role of proteins
C) They focused on RNA instead of DNA
D) They were not definitive in determining the genetic material
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16. Who is known for the quote, “Nothing in biology makes sense except in the light of evolution”?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Theodore Dobzhansky
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Watson and Crick
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17. What did Mendel describe as the unit of heredity?
A) Particle that changes
B) Particle that blends
C) Particle that does not change
D) Particle that evolves
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18. Which scientist determined that the material in the nucleus was a nucleic acid?
A) Haeckel
B) Miescher
C) Mendel
D) Wallace
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19. The chromosomal theory of inheritance focused research on:
A) The role of proteins in genetic transmission
B) The role of chromosomes in heredity
C) The concept of blending inheritance
D) The importance of environmental factors in gene expression
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20. What did the experiments of the mid-20th century confirm regarding the genetic material?
A) It was proteins
B) It was RNA
C) It was DNA
D) It was a combination of DNA and RNA
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21. The “central dogma of molecular biology” concept was developed by:
A) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
B) Watson and Crick
C) Hershey and Chase
D) Crick
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22. Who proposed the neutral theory of molecular evolution?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Alfred Russell Wallace
C) Gregor Mendel
D) None of the above
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23. Which enzyme is critical for DNA cloning?
A) Polymerase
B) Ligase
C) Reverse transcriptase
D) Restriction enzyme
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24. What process does reverse transcriptase enable?
A) PCR
B) cDNA cloning
C) Southern hybridization
D) Radiolabeling of DNA
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25. What did the discovery of restriction enzymes allow?
A) Construction of recombinant DNA molecules
B) Southern hybridizations
C) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
D) EST projects
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26. What technology dramatically decreased the cost of sequencing?
A) Radiolabeling
B) Chain termination DNA sequencing
C) Massively parallel sequencing
D) PCR
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27. Who proposed the concept of particulate (gene) inheritance?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Ernst Haeckel
D) Friedrich Miescher
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28. What term did Friedrich Miescher use for the material found inside the nucleus of a cell?
A) Nuclein
B) Chromatin
C) Nucleoplasm
D) Chromosome
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29. Who coined terms like chromatin, mitosis, and nucleoplasm?
A) Gregor Mendel
B) Charles Darwin
C) Walther Flemming
D) Friedrich Miescher
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30. What concept was Lambert Adolphe Jacques Quetelet’s work critical for?
A) Molecular genetics
B) Chromosome counting
C) Biometry
D) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
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31. What publication formally outlined the theory of evolution via natural selection?
A) Experiments in Plant Hybridization
B) The Origins of Species
C) The concept of particulate (gene) inheritance
D) The nuclein experiments
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32. Which development allowed the distribution of information from central databases?
A) Radiolabeling
B) Chain termination DNA sequencing
C) Computers and the internet
D) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
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33. What technology provided the first glimpse of global expression patterns?
A) EST projects
B) Southern hybridizations
C) Microarray analyses
D) Massively parallel sequencing
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34. What does EST stand for?
A) Expressed Sequence Tags
B) Experimental Sequence Tags
C) Exon Specific Tags
D) End Sequence Tags
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35. What is the hallmark of the information age in genomics?
A) Electron microscopy
B) Radiolabeling
C) Electronic analysis, distribution, and storage of genomic data
D) Microarray analyses
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36. Which technology enabled the age of individual genome sequencing?
A) Radiolabeling
B) Chain termination DNA sequencing
C) Massively parallel sequencing
D) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
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38. What theory proposed that most mutations are fixed by genetic drift and not selection?
A) Neutral theory of molecular evolution
B) Selection theory of molecular evolution
C) Phylogenetics theory
D) Chromosome theory of inheritance
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39. What is the essential role of PCR in genomics?
A) Cloning
B) Protein sequencing
C) Expression analysis
D) DNA amplification
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40. What did the elucidation of the process of DNA replication provide?
A) Tools for radiolabeling of DNA
B) Understanding of ligase enzyme
C) Necessary components for chain termination DNA sequencing
D) All of the above
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41. What field is the application of statistics to biological phenomenon known as?
A) Genomics
B) Biometry
C) Molecular biology
D) Phylogenetics
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42. Who made the first accurate counting of chromosomes?
A) Gregor Mendel
B) Charles Darwin
C) Walther Flemming
D) Friedrich Miescher
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43. Who proposed a universal theory of chromosome behavior in 1887?
a) Wilhelm Johannsen
b) August Weismann
c) William Bateson
d) Carl Correns
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44. Who confirmed August Weismann’s theory of chromosome behavior in the same year it was
proposed?
a) Francis Galton
b) Edouard van Beneden
c) Thomas Hunt Morgan
d) Hugo de Vries
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45. In which year was the term “chromosome” first applied to the condensed material found in the
nucleus?
a) 1889
b) 1894
c) 1888
d) 1900
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46. Who published the book “Natural Inheritance” in 1889, contributing to the formal foundation of the
field of biometry?
a) Karl Pearson
b) Francis Galton
c) August Weismann
d) Wilhelm Johannsen
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47. Which term was first used by William Bateson in 1894 to describe the concept found in Mendel’s
work?
a) Mutation
b) Genetics
c) Allelomorph
d) Hybridization
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48. In 1900, which scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s work?
a) Wilhelm Johannsen and Carl Correns
b) Hugo de Vries and Erich von Tschermak
c) William Bateson and Karl Pearson
d) Thomas Hunt Morgan and Alfred Sturtevant
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49. Who first used the term “mutation” in 1900 to describe the spontaneous appearance of new traits?
a) August Weismann
b) Wilhelm Johannsen
c) Hugo de Vries
d) Carl Correns
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50. In 1902, which scientists proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
a) Thomas Hunt Morgan and Alfred Sturtevant
b) Archibald Garrod and Karl Pearson
c) Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri
d) William Bateson and Hugo de Vries
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51. Who described the first human disease exhibiting Mendelian inheritance in 1902?
a) Alfred Sturtevant
b) William Bateson
c) Archibald Garrod
d) Hugo de Vries
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52. In 1905, which scientists performed experiments on sweet pea demonstrating the concept of linkage?
a) William Bateson and R.C. Punnett
b) Alfred Sturtevant and Thomas Hunt Morgan
c) Lucien Claude Cuenot and Calvin Bridges
d) Friedrich Laibach and G.H. Hardy
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53. Who provided the first suggestion of Arabidopsis as a model organism in 1907?
a) William Bateson
b) Friedrich Laibach
c) Thomas Hunt Morgan
d) Wilhelm Johannsen
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54. In 1908, which scientists formulated the Hardy-Weinberg principle of genetic equilibrium?
a) G.H. Hardy and Wilhelm Johannsen
b) R.C. Punnett and Alfred Sturtevant
c) William Bateson and Karl Pearson
d) G.H. Hardy and W. Weinberg
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55. Who proposed the use of self-fertilized corn for commercial seed production in 1909?
a) Wilhelm Johannsen
b) Thomas Hunt Morgan
c) William Bateson
d) G.H. Shull
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56. In 1909, which scientist coined the terms “phenotype” and “genotype”?
a) Wilhelm Johannsen
b) Thomas Hunt Morgan
c) William Bateson
d) H. Nilsson-Ehle
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57. Who explained quantitative variation in seedcoat color in wheat and oat in 1909?
a) H. Nilsson-Ehle
b) William Bateson
c) Wilhelm Johannsen
d) Archibald Garrod
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58. In 1910, who demonstrated sex linkage in Drosophila for the first time?
a) Alfred Sturtevant
b) Thomas Hunt Morgan
c) Calvin Bridges
d) William Bateson
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59. Who developed the first genetic map in Drosophila in 1913?
a) Calvin Bridges
b) Alfred Sturtevant
c) Wilhelm Johannsen
d) Hugo de Vries
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60. In 1914, which scientist observed non-disjunction in sex chromosomes in Drosophila?
a) Calvin Bridges
b) Thomas Hunt Morgan
c) Wilhelm Johannsen
d) Archibald Garrod
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61. In which year were deficiencies, duplications, and translocations first observed in Drosophila
chromosomes?
a) 1917
b) 1919
c) 1923
d) 1914
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62. Who were the first to describe bacteriophages in 1915-1917?
a) Frederick Twort and Felix D’Herelle
b) William Bateson and Karl Pearson
c) Thomas Hunt Morgan and Alfred Sturtevant
d) Archibald Garrod and Karl Pearson
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63. Which scientist showed that the number of chromosomes equals the number of linkage groups in
1919?
a) Alfred Sturtevant
b) Wilhelm Johannsen
c) Thomas Hunt Morgan
d) William Bateson
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64. Maternal inheritance was demonstrated for shell coiling direction in which organism in 1923?
a) Drosophila
b) Neurospora
c) Limnea peregra
d) Corn
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65. What did Harriet Creighton and Barbara McClintock demonstrate using corn as their experimental
organism?
a) The process of meiosis
b) The physical exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during crossing over
c) The mechanism of DNA replication
d) The formation of gametes in plants
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66. Who formulated the Modern Synthesis, which combines Mendelian inheritance laws with Darwinian
theory?
a) R.A. Fisher
b) Theodore Dobzhansky
c) T.S. Painter
d) Calvin Bridges
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67. Which scientist first used Drosophila salivary gland chromosomes in cytogenetic studies?
a) G.W. Beadle
b) Calvin Bridges
c) T.S. Painter
d) Alfred Sturtevant
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68. Who described the biochemical genetics controlling eye-pigment synthesis in Drosophila?
a) R.A. Fisher
b) Calvin Bridges
c) George Beadle
d) Oswald T. Avery
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69. What did Oswald T. Avery, Colin M. MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty demonstrate in 1944?
a) The structure of DNA
b) The role of DNA as the genetic material
c) The process of DNA replication
d) The role of DNA in protein synthesis
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70. Which concept did Barbara McClintock propose following her study of seed coat color genes in corn?
a) Gene duplication
b) Codominance
c) Transposable elements
d) Polygenic inheritance
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71. Sickle-cell anemia is inherited as a:
a) Dominant Mendelian trait
b) Recessive Mendelian trait
c) Polygenic trait
d) Codominant trait
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72. What did Erwin Chargaff demonstrate about the composition of DNA molecules?
a) The ratio of adenine to guanine
b) The ratio of thymine to cytosine
c) The ratio of adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine
d) The ratio of purines to pyrimidines
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73. Who determined the complete amino acid sequence of insulin in 1952?
a) George Gamow
b) F. Sanger
c) Seymour Benzer
d) Erwin Chargaff
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74. What did the classic “blender experiment” conducted by A.D. Hershey and M. Chase demonstrate?
a) The structure of DNA
b) The role of RNA in protein synthesis
c) The role of proteins as the genetic material
d) The role of DNA as the genetic material
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75. Who presented a structural model of DNA consisting of two anti-parallel chains held together by
hydrogen bonds in 1953?
a) James Watson and Francis Crick
b) Erwin Chargaff
c) Oswald T. Avery, Colin M. MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty
d) George Gamow
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76. What did George Gamow suggest about DNA in 1954?
a) It contains a code responsible for the production of proteins
b) It is composed of four different nucleotides
c) It undergoes replication through a conservative mechanism
d) It is involved in cellular respiration
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77. Who worked out the fine structure of the rII region of the T4 bacteriophage of E. coli in 1955?
a) George Gamow
b) Seymour Benzer
c) Severo Ochoa
d) Newton Morton
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78. Which enzyme, crucial for transcription, was described by Severo Ochoa in 1955?
a) DNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase
c) Helicase
d) Ligase
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79. What method for determining linkage distance in humans was developed by Newton Morton in 1955?
a) Electrophoresis
b) Southern blotting
c) LOD score method
d) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
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80. Who purified DNA polymerase I from E. coli in 1956?
a) Arthur Kornberg
b) Erwin Chargaff
c) Oswald T. Avery
d) Calvin Bridges
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81. What phenomenon did H.J. Muller describe in 1948?
a) Dosage compensation
b) Gene duplication
c) Codominance
d) Transposons
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82. What did J. Lederberg and N. Zinder discover in 1948?
a) DNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase
c) Bacterial genetic recombination
d) Penicillin selection for discovering biochemical mutants
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83. The technique of using inversions to describe the phylogeny of a chromosome was described by:
a) Calvin Bridges
b) Theodore Dobzhansky
c) Alfred Sturtevant
d) T.S. Painter
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84. What did K. Mather coin the term “polygenes” for in 1941?
a) Genes controlling eye-pigment synthesis
b) Multiple genes controlling traits in several organisms
c) Genes responsible for phenotypes
d) Genes involved in bacterial mutations
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85. What year did Francis Crick propose the central dogma of molecular biology?
a) 1956
b) 1957
c) 1958
d) 1959
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86. Who demonstrated the physical exchange of DNA between bacterial strains, defining bacterial
conjugation?
a) F. Jacob
b) E.L. Woolman
c) Francis Crick
d) V.M. Ingram
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87. Which experiment proved semiconservative DNA replication?
a) F. Jacob and E. Woolman
b) Francis Crick
c) Matthew Meselsohn and F.W. Stahl
d) Marshall Nirenberg
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88. The first correspondence between a triplet code and an amino acid was found by:
a) Marshall Nirenberg
b) H. Gobind Khorana
c) Francis Crick
d) R.L. Sinsheimer
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89. Who described ribosomes as the site of protein synthesis?
a) Sydney Brenner
b) Francois Jacob
c) Matthew Meselsohn
d) Marshall Nirenberg
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90. The first phylogenetic tree was developed based on the comparison of amino acid sequences of:
a) DNA polymerase
b) Cytochrome C
c) RNA polymerase
d) Histones
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91. What year was the Arpanet developed?
a) 1966
b) 1967
c) 1968
d) 1969
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92. Who isolated the first bacterial gene?
a) Marshall Nirenberg
b) Jonathan Beckwith
c) Werner Arber
d) Howard Temin
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93. Which enzyme can make a DNA copy of RNA?
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) Ligase
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94. The first recombinant DNA molecule was created by splicing together bacterial and viral DNA by:
a) Lynn Margulis
b) Paul Berg
c) Herbert Boyer
d) Stanley Cohen
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95. The endosymbiotic theory proposes the origin of organelles from:
a) Fusion of cells
b) Endocytosis of bacteria
c) Synthesis by the cell
d) Degradation of cell components
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96. Who created the first email application for the internet?
a) Ray Tomlinson
b) Paul Berg
c) Robert Metcalfe
d) Vint Cerf
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97. The TCP protocol that supports the transfer of data packets on the internet was developed by:
a) Vint Cerf
b) Robert Kahn
c) Paul Berg
d) Charles Goldfarb
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98. Which markup language is a subset of SGML and is used to create WWW pages?
a) HTML
b) XML
c) CSS
d) JavaScript
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99. The parsimony procedure for developing phylogenetic trees was described by:
a) Goodman et al.
b) R.L. Sinsheimer
c) W.M Fitch
d) E. Margoliash
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100. Two-dimensional electrophoresis was developed by:
a) P. O’Farrell
b) V.M. Ingram
c) M. Kimura
d) W. Summers
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Genetic Basis Of Inheritance
1. Who is considered the pioneer in the study of genetics through his work on pea plants?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan
D) Francis Crick
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2. What did Mendel refer to as “factors” in his study of pea plant genetics?
A) Cellular components
B) Genetic material
C) Chromosomes
D) DNA molecules
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3. Which of the following accurately describes Mendel’s Particulate Hypothesis of Inheritance?
A) Traits are inherited through blending of characteristics from both parents.
B) Genetic material is transmitted in a continuous stream from parents to offspring.
C) Parents pass on separate and distinct factors (genes) responsible for inherited traits.
D) Genetic information is carried solely by proteins.
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4. What is the process by which genetic information is passed on from parents to offspring?
A) Evolution
B) Adaptation
C) Inheritance
D) Mutation
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5. According to the Characteristics of Genetic Material, what must genetic material be capable of?
A) Varying randomly
B) Mutating constantly
C) Replicating precisely and passing on true copies to successive generations
D) Exhibiting discontinuous inheritance patterns
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6. Which scientist determined that DNA was the genetic material responsible for Griffith’s results?
A) Thomas Hunt Morgan
B) Oswald T. Avery
C) Erwin Chargaff
D) Fred Griffith
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7. The Hershey-Chase Experiments (1952) demonstrated that DNA from viruses can:
A) Integrate into host cell chromosomes
B) Cause mutations in host cell DNA
C) Program bacteria to make new viruses
D) Destroy host cell DNA
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8. What did Erwin Chargaff note about the amounts of nucleotides within DNA?
A) Adenine equals thymine and guanine equals cytosine
B) Adenine equals cytosine and guanine equals thymine
C) Adenine equals guanine and thymine equals cytosine
D) Adenine equals thymine and guanine equals cytosine, with overall regularity
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9. How many genomes do humans typically possess?
A) Four
B) Three
C) One
D) Two
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10. What term describes the process by which genetic material is transmitted from parent to child?
A) Mutation
B) Heredity
C) Evolution
D) Variation
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11. Which statement accurately describes genetic material’s capability according to the Characteristics of
Genetic Material?
A) It cannot show diversity corresponding to the variety existing in organisms.
B) It must be present in only a few specific cell types.
C) It should be able to generate only its own kind, not new kinds of molecules.
D) It should be capable of differential expression despite having the same genetic material.
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12. Who conducted experiments with pneumonia and bacterial transformation, providing evidence for the
existence of a molecule controlling inheritance?
A) Thomas Hunt Morgan
B) Oswald T. Avery
C) Erwin Chargaff
D) Fred Griffith
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13. Who are credited with proposing the chromosome theory of inheritance?
A) Gregor Mendel and Thomas Hunt Morgan
B) Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri
C) T. H. Morgan and his students
D) Mendel and Morgan
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14. What does the chromosome theory of inheritance propose?
A) Genes are found on mitochondria.
B) Genes are located on specific locations of chromosomes.
C) Genes are randomly distributed in the cell.
D) Genes are not inherited according to Mendel’s laws.
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15. What is a key observation supporting the chromosome theory of inheritance?
A) Chromosomes do not come in pairs.
B) Chromosomes segregate independently of each other.
C) Chromosomes have no role in meiosis.
D) Chromosomes come in homologous pairs and segregate during meiosis.
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16. Who provided the first strong confirmation of the chromosome theory by studying fruit flies?
A) Gregor Mendel
B) Thomas Hunt Morgan
C) Walter Sutton
D) Theodor Boveri
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17. Which organism did Thomas Hunt Morgan study to verify the chromosome theory of inheritance?
A) Grasshoppers
B) Sea urchins
C) Fruit flies
D) Bacteria
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18. What was the observed inheritance pattern of the eye color gene in fruit flies?
A) It was inherited similarly in both male and female flies.
B) It showed sex-linked inheritance.
C) It followed Mendel’s laws of segregation.
D) It exhibited independent assortment.
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19. Which chromosome did Morgan conclude the eye color gene was located on?
A) Chromosome 1
B) Chromosome 2
C) X chromosome
D) Y chromosome
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20. What genotype do female fruit flies have?
A) XY
B) XX
C) XYY
D) YX
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21. How did Morgan determine the inheritance pattern of the eye color gene?
A) By studying DNA sequencing
B) By performing PCR analysis
C) By observing phenotypic ratios in crosses
D) By conducting gene editing experiments
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22. What inheritance pattern did Morgan observe in male fruit flies for the eye color gene?
A) All males had white eyes.
B) Half of the males had red eyes.
C) All males had red eyes.
D) Half of the males had white eyes.
View Answer
23. What genotype do male fruit flies have?
A) XY
B) XX
C) XYY
D) YX
View Answer
24. How did Morgan explain the different inheritance patterns observed between male and female fruit
flies?
A) Through the law of segregation
B) Through the law of independent assortment
C) Through sex-linked inheritance
D) Through blending inheritance
View Answer
25. How did Morgan represent the eye color gene on the X chromosome?
A) w+
B) W
C) Eye
D) Eye+
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26. What does the “w” represent in the representation of the eye color gene?
A) Red-eye allele
B) White-eye allele
C) Dominant allele
D) Recessive allele
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27. Which tool did Morgan use to predict the inheritance pattern of the eye color gene?
A) Punnett square
B) Microscope
C) Electrophoresis
D) DNA sequencer
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28. What did Morgan observe about female F2 flies in his experiments?
A) They all had white eyes.
B) They all had red eyes.
C) Half had white eyes, half had red eyes.
D) None of the above.
View Answer
29. What did Morgan observe about male F2 flies in his experiments?
A) They all had white eyes.
B) They all had red eyes.
C) Half had white eyes, half had red eyes.
D) None of the above.
View Answer
30. Which chromosome did Morgan identify as responsible for the inheritance pattern observed in male
flies?
A) X chromosome
B) Y chromosome
C) Z chromosome
D) A chromosome
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31. What did Morgan conclude about the eye color gene based on his observations?
A) It was located on the Y chromosome.
B) It was located on the Z chromosome.
C) It was located on the X chromosome.
D) It was not located on any chromosome.
View Answer
32. How did Morgan contribute to the confirmation of the chromosome theory of inheritance?
A) By proposing the theory
B) By conducting experiments on grasshoppers
C) By observing patterns of inheritance in fruit flies
D) By studying sea urchins
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33. What organism did Sutton study to propose the chromosome theory of inheritance?
A) Grasshoppers
B) Sea urchins
C) Fruit flies
D) Bacteria
View Answer
34. Which law of Mendel’s does the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis help explain?
A) Law of dominance
B) Law of segregation
C) Law of independent assortment
D) Law of random mating
View Answer
35. What type of mutation did Morgan discover in fruit flies?
A) Wing color mutation
B) Eye color mutation
C) Body size mutation
D) Antennae length mutation
View Answer
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Animal Breeding System
1. What is the primary objective of animal breeding?
A) To increase the number of species in a population
B) To decrease the genetic variation in populations
C) To improve the efficiency of production of farm animals
D) To introduce new genetic mutations into a population
View Answer
2. Which of the following best defines population genetics?
A) The study of individual animal behaviors within a population
B) The analysis of genetic variation and its distribution in populations
C) The examination of animal anatomy and physiology in different populations
D) The study of animal breeding techniques across various populations
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3. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the type of breeding system used in livestock
operations?
A) Size of the herd
B) Geographic location of the farm
C) Available financial resources
D) Goals of the producer
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4. Which breeding system involves mating animals of the same breed?
A) Inbreeding
B) Crossbreeding
C) Grading Up
D) Purebred breeding
View Answer
5. What is the purpose of inbreeding in animal breeding?
A) To increase genetic diversity
B) To produce hybrid offspring
C) To decrease genetic purity
D) To increase the genetic purity of the stock
View Answer
6. Which of the following is an example of closebreeding?
A) Cousin x cousin
B) Brother x sister
C) Purebred x crossbred
D) Son x mother
View Answer
7. What distinguishes linebreeding from closebreeding?
A) Linebreeding involves mating distant relatives, while closebreeding involves mating closely related animals.
B) Linebreeding involves mating unrelated animals, while closebreeding involves mating closely related animals.
C) Linebreeding involves mating animals of different breeds, while closebreeding involves mating animals of the same breed.
D) Linebreeding involves mating animals within the same generation, while closebreeding involves mating animals across generations.
View Answer
8. Which breeding system involves mating purebred males with grade or unregistered females to improve
the herd?
A) Purebred breeding
B) Crossbreeding
C) Grading Up
D) Inbreeding
View Answer
9. What is hybrid vigor also known as?
A) Genetic purity
B) Homozygosity
C) Heterosis
D) Genetic drift
View Answer
10. In which crossbreeding system are replacement females bred to a sire, and all offspring are sold?
A) Terminal sire
B) Rotational
C) Grading Up
D) Closebreeding
View Answer
11. Which breeding system uses a rotation between sires and females involving two, three, or four
breeds?
A) Terminal sire
B) Rotational
C) Grading Up
D) Linebreeding
View Answer
12. Which breeding system involves mating a male and female of different breeds?
A) Inbreeding
B) Purebred breeding
C) Crossbreeding
D) Grading Up
View Answer
13. What is the primary advantage of crossbreeding?
A) Decreased genetic diversity
B) Increased genetic purity
C) Superior traits in offspring due to heterosis
D) Increased risk of inbreeding depression
View Answer
14. What is the primary disadvantage of inbreeding?
A) Increased genetic purity
B) Increased heterozygosity
C) Decreased risk of genetic disorders
D) Increased risk of expression of deleterious recessive traits
View Answer
15. Which of the following is NOT a type of inbreeding?
A) Closebreeding
B) Linebreeding
C) Outbreeding
D) Purebred breeding
View Answer
16. What does the term “grading up” refer to in animal breeding?
A) Mating closely related animals
B) Mating animals of different breeds
C) Mating purebred males with grade or unregistered females
D) Mating distant relatives to maintain genetic diversity
View Answer
17. Which breeding system involves breeding animals that are very closely related?
A) Crossbreeding
B) Linebreeding
C) Grading Up
D) Closebreeding
View Answer
18. What is the main objective of purebred breeding?
A) To increase hybrid vigor
B) To introduce genetic mutations
C) To improve the genetic purity of a breed
D) To decrease genetic diversity
View Answer
19. What is the primary goal of rotational crossbreeding?
A) To maintain genetic purity
B) To maximize heterozygosity
C) To minimize genetic variation
D) To capitalize on breed complementarity
View Answer
20. Which of the following breeding systems involves the use of industry-owned hybrids in swine and
poultry production?
A) Purebred breeding
B) Crossbreeding
C) Inbreeding
D) Grading Up
View Answer
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Breeding Techniques
1. What is the average global per capita meat consumption per year?
A) 50.2 kg
B) 42.1 kg
C) 60.5 kg
D) 35.8 kg
View Answer
2. Which technology reduces the transmission of venereal diseases and minimizes the need to maintain
breeding males on farms?
A) Embryo Transfer (ET)
B) Sperm sexing
C) Artificial Insemination (AI)
D) In-vitro Fertilization (IVF)
View Answer
3. What is the recommended daily animal-sourced protein consumption per capita?
A) 150 kg per year
B) 100 kg per year
C) 50 kg per year
D) 200 kg per year
View Answer
4. Which biotechnology method is used when other artificial reproductive techniques fail due to various
difficulties?
A) Sperm sexing
B) Embryo Transfer (ET)
C) In-vitro Fertilization (IVF)
D) Artificial Insemination (AI)
View Answer
5. What is the global per capita consumption of milk per year?
A) 150 kg
B) 108 kg
C) 75 kg
D) 90 kg
View Answer
6. Which technology allows the production of several livestock progenies from a superior female by
transferring embryos to a surrogate mother?
A) In-vitro Fertilization (IVF)
B) Sperm sexing
C) Embryo Transfer (ET)
D) Artificial Insemination (AI)
View Answer
7. What is the primary advantage of Artificial Insemination (AI) in livestock breeding?
A) Increases the cost of introducing improved genetics
B) Requires maintaining breeding males on farms
C) Reduces transmission of venereal diseases
D) Involves natural mating process
View Answer
8. Which biotechnology method involves the fertilization of sperm and egg outside the animal’s body?
A) Embryo Transfer (ET)
B) In-vitro Fertilization (IVF)
C) Artificial Insemination (AI)
D) Sperm sexing
View Answer
9. What is the purpose of cryopreservation in livestock breeding?
A) To induce superovulation in females
B) To facilitate more accurate recording of pedigrees
C) To freeze semen for future use
D) To conduct fertilization outside the animal’s body
View Answer
10. Which biotechnology method involves transferring embryos from a superior female to a surrogate
mother?
A) In-vitro Fertilization (IVF)
B) Sperm sexing
C) Embryo Transfer (ET)
D) Artificial Insemination (AI)
View Answer
11. What is the average global per capita meat consumption in developed countries?
A) 50.2 kg/year
B) 82.9 kg/year
C) 31.1 kg/year
D) 42.1 kg/year
View Answer
12. What is the recommended daily consumption of milk per capita?
A) 100 kg per year
B) 50 kg per year
C) 200 kg per year
D) 108 kg per year
View Answer
13. Which technology facilitates the production of several livestock progenies from a superior female by
transferring embryos to a surrogate mother?
A) In-vitro Fertilization (IVF)
B) Sperm sexing
C) Embryo Transfer (ET)
D) Artificial Insemination (AI)
View Answer
14. What is the primary advantage of cryopreservation in livestock breeding?
A) Increases the cost of introducing improved genetics
B) Facilitates more accurate recording of pedigrees
C) Reduces transmission of venereal diseases
D) Freezes semen for future use
View Answer
15. Which biotechnology method is used to fertilize sperm and egg outside the animal’s body?
A) Embryo Transfer (ET)
B) In-vitro Fertilization (IVF)
C) Artificial Insemination (AI)
D) Sperm sexing
View Answer
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Population Genetics
1. What is the primary purpose of animal breeding?
A. To maximize inbreeding within populations
B. To minimize genetic differences between populations
C. To improve animal populations by selection while minimizing inbreeding
D. To promote random mating patterns within populations
View Answer
2. In the equation P = G + E, what does ‘G’ represent?
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Environment
D. Population
View Answer
3. Which of the following best defines a population in ecological terms?
A. A group of individuals with identical genotypes
B. A group of individuals of different species living together
C. A group of individuals of the same species living within a restricted geographical area that allows any two individuals to interbreed
D. A group of individuals with distinct phenotypes
View Answer
4. What is the gene pool of a population?
A. The collection of all individuals within a population
B. The geographic area where a population resides
C. The sum total of all genes in a population
D. The environment in which a population lives
View Answer
5. What is population genetics primarily concerned with?
A. Individual organisms
B. Ecological factors influencing populations
C. Variation in alleles and genotypes within the gene pool of a population
D. Speciation events
View Answer
6. What does the term “polymorphic” mean in the context of population genetics?
A. A population with a small number of individuals
B. A population with a high degree of genetic diversity
C. A gene that occurs in a number of different forms (or alleles)
D. A gene that is present in only one form
View Answer
7. Which of the following factors can influence genetic diversity within a gene pool?
A. Population size
B. Mutation
C. Genetic drift
D. All of the above
View Answer
8. What role does natural selection play in population genetics?
A. It promotes random mating patterns
B. It reduces genetic diversity
C. It selects for individuals with advantageous traits
D. It has no effect on allele frequencies
View Answer
9. Which mathematical models are used in population genetics?
A. Newtonian calculus
B. Algebraic equations
C. Statistical models
D. All of the above
View Answer
10. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing genetic diversity within a gene pool?
A. Environmental diversity
B. Migration
C. Random mating patterns
D. Population size
View Answer
11. What does the equation P = G + E represent in animal breeding?
A. The potential for phenotypic variation
B. The influence of environment on phenotype
C. The genetic basis of phenotype
D. All of the above
View Answer
12. Which of the following statements about population genetics is true?
A. It primarily focuses on individual organisms.
B. It is concerned with genetic variation between populations only.
C. It involves the study of changes in allele frequencies over time.
D. It does not consider the role of mutation in genetic diversity.
View Answer
13. What does the term “allele” refer to in genetics?
A. A specific form of a gene
B. A type of mutation
C. The environment in which a population lives
D. The geographic area where a population resides
View Answer
14. Which of the following factors can lead to genetic drift?
A. Large population size
B. High mutation rates
C. Founder effect
D. Strong natural selection
View Answer
15. What is the ultimate goal of animal breeding and genetics?
A. To maximize inbreeding within populations
B. To minimize genetic diversity
C. To improve animal populations by selecting for desirable traits while minimizing inbreeding
D. To promote non-random mating patterns within populations
View Answer
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Cross Breeding
1. What is the primary purpose of crossbreeding in animal husbandry?
a) To maintain the purity of breeds
b) To decrease the genetic diversity within a breed
c) To enhance offspring’s economic value by combining complementary traits
d) To create genetically identical offspring
View Answer
2. Heterosis refers to:
a) Decreased production advantage from crossing breeds
b) Genetic similarity between parent breeds
c) Increased production advantage from crossing genetically diverse breeds
d) Maintaining purebred lines
View Answer
3. Which step in establishing a crossbreeding program involves determining the desired production levels
for economically important traits?
a) Defining current situation
b) Determining breeding objectives
c) Defining management and nutrition levels
d) Setting out a long-term breeding program
View Answer
4. What is the main purpose of the two breed cross system?
a) To create composite breeds
b) To produce F1 progeny for slaughter
c) To enhance maternal traits
d) To maintain purebred lines
View Answer
5. In a backcross system, what happens to the male calves produced from the first cross?
a) They are sold for slaughter
b) They are used for breeding purposes
c) They are kept for further selection
d) They are crossed with another breed
View Answer
6. What is the advantage of using a backcross system for maternal traits?
a) Maximizes heterosis
b) Improves growth rate
c) Enhances fertility and milking ability
d) Produces genetically identical offspring
View Answer
7. How many breeds are involved in a three breed cross system?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
8. In rotational crossbreeding, what is done with the males of different breeds?
a) They are sold for slaughter
b) They are kept for breeding purposes
c) They are crossed with each other
d) They are used for other purposes
View Answer
9. What is the result of the development of a composite or synthetic breed?
a) Increased genetic diversity
b) Decreased economic value
c) Maintenance of purebred lines
d) Crossing of two or more existing breeds
View Answer
10. Which step in establishing a crossbreeding program may take up to ten years or more to achieve?
a) Defining current situation
b) Determining breeding objectives
c) Setting out a long-term breeding program
d) Sticking to the plan once established
View Answer
11. Which of the following is NOT a consideration in defining the current situation in a crossbreeding
program?
a) Markets
b) Breeds
c) Nutrition
d) Climate change
View Answer
12. What is the primary advantage of a three breed cross system over a two breed cross system?
a) Increased genetic diversity
b) Enhanced maternal traits
c) Faster growth rate
d) Lower production costs
View Answer
13. In a rotational crossbreeding system, how are the strengths and weaknesses of each breed managed?
a) By alternating breeds every generation
b) By selecting the best performing breed
c) By using only one breed at a time
d) By random mating of all available breeds
View Answer
14. What is the main difference between a backcross system and a three breed cross system?
a) Number of breeds involved
b) Use of parental breeds
c) Purpose of the breeding program
d) Genetic diversity achieved
View Answer
15. Which breeding system maximizes heterosis for maternal traits?
a) Two breed cross
b) Backcross
c) Three breed cross
d) Rotational cross
View Answer
16. What is the primary focus of defining breeding objectives in a crossbreeding program?
a) Maximizing profit
b) Increasing genetic diversity
c) Meeting market requirements
d) Maintaining purebred lines
View Answer
17. Which breeding system involves the crossing of males of different breeds with crossbred females?
a) Two breed cross
b) Backcross
c) Three breed cross
d) Rotational cross
View Answer
18. What is the main advantage of a composite breed?
a) Increased genetic diversity
b) Maintenance of purebred lines
c) Greater adaptability to environmental conditions
d) Lower production costs
View Answer
19. What is the purpose of selling all male calves produced from the first cross in a backcross system?
a) To maximize profit
b) To maintain purebred lines
c) To enhance maternal traits
d) To prevent inbreeding
View Answer
20. Which breeding system involves the production of F1 progeny for slaughter?
a) Backcross
b) Three breed cross
c) Rotational cross
d) Two breed cross
View Answer
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Animal Breed Selection
1. What is the primary means through which improvement of domesticated animals has been achieved?
A) Hybridization
B) Selection
C) Mutation
D) Genetic engineering
View Answer
2. Which of the following is the simplest form of selection?
A) Genetic engineering
B) Hybridization
C) Phenotypic selection
D) Genomic selection
View Answer
3. What is a breeding stock?
A) A group of animals with desirable traits
B) A group of animals used for experimental purposes
C) A group of animals from different species
D) A group of animals used for consumption
View Answer
4. What does culling involve?
A) Breeding animals for desired traits
B) Removing animals that do not perform well
C) Feeding animals a specific diet
D) Training animals for specific tasks
View Answer
5. Which selection method is the quickest way to make progress in a single trait?
A) Tandem selection
B) Independent culling levels
C) Selection index
D) Individual selection
View Answer
6. What is the main objective in genetic selection?
A) Improving individual animals
B) Improving the population as a whole
C) Achieving specific breed standards
D) Maximizing profits for breeders
View Answer
7. Which of the following is NOT a selection tool?
A) Visual appraisal
B) Performance data for sires
C) Industry standards
D) Genetic engineering techniques
View Answer
8. What is the purpose of pedigree selection?
A) Selecting based on individual performance
B) Selecting based on family bloodlines
C) Selecting based on industry standards
D) Selecting based on visual appraisal
View Answer
9. Which method of selection focuses on improving one trait at a time until satisfactory improvement is
achieved?
A) Tandem selection
B) Independent culling levels
C) Selection index
D) Family selection
View Answer
10. What is the advantage of independent culling levels over tandem selection?
A) It focuses on improving one trait at a time
B) It is less efficient
C) It allows for simultaneous improvement of multiple traits
D) It relies solely on visual appraisal
View Answer
11. How is selection index or total score method different from other methods?
A) It only focuses on visual appraisal
B) It prioritizes individual traits over the overall score
C) It considers all traits simultaneously
D) It relies on industry standards
View Answer
12. When selecting a breeding stock, which factor is related to the animal’s ability to give birth to multiple
offspring?
A) Age
B) Prolificacy
C) Physical fitness
D) Temperament
View Answer
13. Which factor refers to the overall health of the animal?
A) Physical fitness
B) Quality of products
C) Health
D) Temperament
View Answer
14. What does the term “adaptability” refer to in breeding selection?
A) The ability to perform specific tasks
B) The ability to survive in different environments
C) The ability to produce high-quality products
D) The ability to interact well with humans
View Answer
15. Which selection method focuses on selecting based on an individual’s own performance?
A) Family selection
B) Pedigree selection
C) Individual selection
D) Tandem selection
View Answer
16. Which method involves rejecting individuals that fail to meet the minimum standard for any one trait?
A) Tandem selection
B) Independent culling levels
C) Selection index
D) Pedigree selection
View Answer
17. Which of the following is NOT a consideration when selecting a breeding stock?
A) Mothering ability
B) Industry standards
C) Temperament
D) Performance level
View Answer
18. What is the purpose of family selection?
A) Selecting based on individual performance
B) Selecting based on family bloodlines
C) Selecting based on industry standards
D) Selecting based on visual appraisal
View Answer
19. Which selection method involves selecting for one trait at a time until satisfactory improvement is
achieved?
A) Tandem selection
B) Independent culling levels
C) Selection index
D) Family selection
View Answer
20. What factor is related to the animal’s physical ability to perform?
A) Health
B) Age
C) Physical fitness
D) Temperament
View Answer
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Polygenic Inheritance
1. Which of the following traits are typically polygenic in animals?
A) Eye color
B) Horn shape
C) Tail length
D) All of the above
View Answer
2. What is the main reason for the continuous variation observed in traits such as height, mass, and eye color?
A) Environmental influence
B) Single gene effect
C) Dominance-recessive interactions
D) Random mutations
View Answer
3. Which of the following is an example of discontinuous variation in animals?
A) Disease resistance
B) Growth rate
C) Eye color
D) Temperament
View Answer
4. How many distinct phenotypes are produced by the interaction of four alleles controlling the combs of chickens?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
View Answer
5. How many alleles control the combs of chickens?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
View Answer
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the distinct phenotypes produced by the interaction of alleles controlling chicken combs?
A) Single
B) Rose
C) Feathered
D) Pea
View Answer
7. If a pure-breeding rose comb chicken (ppRR) is crossed with a pure-breeding pea comb chicken (PPrr), what will be the phenotype of the F1 offspring?
A) Single comb
B) Rose comb
C) Pea comb
D) Walnut comb
View Answer
8. In the crossing mentioned in question 7, what are the genotypes of the F1 offspring?
A) PpRR
B) Pprr
C) PPrr
D) ppRR
View Answer
9. What term is used to describe the situation where multiple genes interact to produce a single phenotype?
A) Polygenic inheritance
B) Codominance
C) Epistasis
D) Pleiotropy
View Answer
10. Which of the following is an example of a trait influenced by polygenic inheritance?
A) Blood type in humans
B) Horn shape in cattle
C) Antler size in deer
D) Tail length in dogs
View Answer
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Multiple Allelomorphs
1. What term describes the phenomenon where many variations of a gene are present in a population?
a) Codominance
b) Pleiotropy
c) Multiple alleles
d) Incomplete dominance
View Answer
2. In diploid organisms, each individual can express how many alleles simultaneously?
a) One allele
b) Two alleles
c) Three alleles
d) Four alleles
View Answer
3. What is the term for a genotype where both alleles are the same?
a) Homozygous
b) Heterozygous
c) Dominant
d) Recessive
View Answer
4. Which of the following is NOT a blood type?
a) Type A
b) Type O
c) Type AB
d) Type D
View Answer
5. In the ABO blood group system, which allele is codominant with another allele?
a) Allele A
b) Allele B
c) Allele O
d) Allele AB
View Answer
6. What blood type results from the genotype AO?
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
View Answer
7. In rabbits, what determines fur colors?
a) Two alleles
b) Three alleles
c) Four alleles
d) Five alleles
View Answer
8. Which allele determines the full color fur in rabbits?
a) Chinchilla
b) Himalayan
c) Albino
d) Full Color
View Answer
9. Which of the following is NOT a rabbit fur color allele?
a) Full Color
b) Silver
c) Chinchilla
d) Himalayan
View Answer
10. If a rabbit inherits alleles for Chinchilla fur from both parents, what would its phenotype be?
a) Full Color
b) Chinchilla
c) Himalayan
d) Albino
View Answer
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Heritability And Repeatability
1: What does heritability estimate in a population?
A) The degree of variation in a phenotypic trait due to environmental factors
B) The degree of variation in a phenotypic trait due to genetic factors
C) The total variation in a population’s phenotypic traits
D) The average value of a phenotypic trait in a population
View Answer
2: How is heritability estimated?
A) By comparing individual phenotypic variation among unrelated individuals
B) By comparing individual phenotypic variation among unrelated individuals
C) By comparing individual phenotypic variation among related individuals
D) By comparing individual genotypic variation among related individuals
View Answer
3: What is the mathematical relationship between heritability and the correlation between phenotypic
values and breeding values?
A) Heritability equals the correlation between phenotypic values and breeding values
B) Heritability is the square of the correlation between phenotypic values and breeding values
C) Heritability is inversely proportional to the correlation between phenotypic values and breeding values
D) Heritability is not related to the correlation between phenotypic values and breeding values
View Answer
4: What does a high heritability indicate about a trait?
A) It indicates that environmental factors have a strong influence on the trait
B) It indicates that the trait is not influenced by genetic factors
C) It indicates that offspring closely resemble their parents for the trait
D) It indicates that there is little resemblance between offspring and parents for the trait
View Answer
5: Which of the following heritability ranges represents a high heritability?
A) 0-20%
B) 20-40%
C) 40-60%
D) 60-80%
View Answer
6: What is the importance of heritability in selection for quantitative traits?
A) It helps in predicting the environmental factors affecting the traits
B) It helps in predicting the breeding values of individuals accurately
C) It helps in determining the total variation in a population’s phenotypic traits
D) It helps in identifying the average value of a phenotypic trait in a population
View Answer
7: When heritability is low, what can improve selection accuracy for traits?
A) Including only the individual’s performance record
B) Including only the performance records of relatives
C) Including only the performance records of progeny
D) Including the individual’s performance record along with relative’s and progeny records
View Answer
8: What is repeatability?
A) The degree of variation in a phenotypic trait due to genetic factors
B) A measure of the strength of the relationship between repeated records for a trait
C) The total variation in a population’s phenotypic traits
D) The average value of a phenotypic trait in a population
View Answer
9: What type of traits is repeatability particularly relevant for?
A) Qualitative traits
B) Continuous traits
C) Discontinuous traits
D) Polygenic traits
View Answer
10: What does repeatability measure in animal breeding?
A) The consistency of a single performance record in predicting genetic values
B) The variation in phenotypic traits due to environmental factors
C) The total genetic variation in a population
D) The correlation between genotypic values and phenotypic values
View Answer
11: Which of the following statements is true regarding repeatability?
A) It measures the degree of variation in a phenotypic trait due to genetic factors
B) It measures the total variation in a population’s phenotypic traits
C) It is the correlation between repeated records for a trait
D) It is not relevant for traits with low heritability
View Answer
12: How is repeatability calculated?
A) As the square root of the correlation between repeated records
B) As the sum of repeated records for a trait
C) As the ratio of genetic variation to phenotypic variation
D) As the correlation between single performance records and producing abilities
View Answer
13: What does a high repeatability indicate about a trait?
A) It indicates that the trait is influenced by environmental factors
B) It indicates that the trait is not consistent across repeated measurements
C) It indicates that the trait shows high consistency across repeated measurements
D) It indicates that there is little genetic variation for the trait
View Answer
14: Which of the following traits is an example of a trait where repeatability is relevant?
A) Eye color
B) Hair texture
C) Milk yield
D) Blood type
View Answer
15: What does repeatability measure the consistency of?
A) The correlation between single performance records and producing abilities
B) The degree of variation in a phenotypic trait due to genetic factors
C) The relationship between repeated records for a trait
D) The average value of a phenotypic trait in a population
View Answer
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Covariance And Correlation
1. What does covariance measure between two variables?
a) The degree to which the variables tend to move together
b) The strength of the relationship between the variables
c) The difference between the means of the variables
d) The spread of the data points
View Answer
2. If the covariance between two variables is positive, what does it indicate about their relationship?
a) They have a perfect positive correlation
b) They have a perfect negative correlation
c) They are positively related and move in the same direction
d) They are inversely related and move in opposite directions
View Answer
3. What does a negative covariance between two variables suggest?
a) They have a perfect positive correlation
b) They have a perfect negative correlation
c) They are positively related and move in the same direction
d) They are inversely related and move in opposite directions
View Answer
4. Which formula is used to calculate covariance for sample data?
a) Correlation coefficient formula
b) Mean formula
c) Variance formula
d) Covariance formula
View Answer
5. What does correlation measure in addition to the relationship between two variables?
a) The spread of the data points
b) The degree to which the variables tend to move together
c) The difference between the means of the variables
d) The strength of the relationship between the variables
View Answer
6. What is the range of values for the correlation coefficient?
a) 0 to ∞
b) -1 to 1
c) -∞ to ∞
d) 0 to 1
View Answer
7. If the correlation coefficient between two variables is -0.8, what does it indicate about their
relationship?
a) They have a perfect positive correlation
b) They have a perfect negative correlation
c) They are positively related but not perfectly
d) They are inversely related but not perfectly
View Answer
8. What does a correlation coefficient of 1 signify about the relationship between two variables?
a) They have a perfect positive correlation
b) They have a perfect negative correlation
c) They are positively related but not perfectly
d) They are inversely related but not perfectly
View Answer
9. How does correlation differ from covariance?
a) Correlation measures the spread of data, while covariance measures the strength of the relationship.
b) Correlation measures the strength of the relationship, while covariance measures the spread of data.
c) Correlation uses one standard unit of measurement, while covariance does not.
d) Correlation does not consider the relationship between variables, while covariance does.
View Answer
10. Why is correlation preferred over covariance for measuring the relationship between variables?
a) Correlation provides information about the spread of data.
b) Correlation standardizes the measure of interdependence between variables.
c) Correlation does not require the calculation of means.
d) Correlation always results in a positive value.
View Answer
11. What does a correlation coefficient of zero indicate between two variables?
a) Perfect positive correlation
b) Perfect negative correlation
c) No relationship exists between the variables
d) Inverse correlation
View Answer
12. What does a correlation coefficient of -1 signify?
a) Perfect positive correlation
b) Perfect negative correlation
c) No correlation
d) Inverse correlation
View Answer
13. If the correlation coefficient is 0.66, what does this suggest about the relationship between two
variables?
a) They are inversely related
b) There is no correlation
c) They are positively related
d) They are not related
View Answer
14. What does covariance measure between two variables?
a) The strength of their relationship
b) The direction of their relationship
c) The magnitude of their relationship
d) The spread of their values
View Answer
15. In the context of correlation, what does a covariance of 1.53 indicate?
a) Perfect positive correlation
b) Perfect negative correlation
c) No correlation
d) Weak correlation
View Answer
16. What does a negative correlation coefficient greater than -1 indicate?
a) Perfect positive correlation
b) Perfect negative correlation
c) No correlation
d) Weak negative correlation
View Answer
17. Which formula is used to calculate the correlation coefficient?
a) Variance formula
b) Covariance formula
c) Standard deviation formula
d) Correlation formula
View Answer
18. In the given example, what is the standard deviation of the S&P 500 returns?
a) 0.90
b) 1.53
c) 2.58
d) Cannot be determined from the given information
View Answer
19. What is the standard deviation of economic growth in the given example?
a) 0.90
b) 1.53
c) 2.58
d) Cannot be determined from the given information
View Answer
20. How is the correlation coefficient affected if the covariance remains the same but the standard
deviations increase?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Cannot be determined
View Answer
21. In business, what are covariance and correlation commonly used for?
a) Analyzing market returns
b) Analyzing consumer behavior
c) Understanding product consumption
d) All of the above
View Answer
22. What is the relationship between covariance and correlation?
a) Covariance measures direction, while correlation measures magnitude.
b) Covariance measures magnitude, while correlation measures direction.
c) Covariance and correlation are the same concept.
d) Covariance and correlation measure unrelated aspects of variables.
View Answer
23. Which of the following is true about a correlation coefficient of -1?
a) It indicates perfect positive correlation.
b) It indicates perfect negative correlation.
c) It indicates no correlation.
d) It indicates weak correlation.
View Answer
24. How does correlation coefficient help in understanding the relationship between two variables?
a) By measuring the spread of their values
b) By measuring the strength and direction of their relationship
c) By measuring the standard deviation of the variables
d) By measuring the covariance of the variables
View Answer
25. What does a correlation coefficient of -0.5 suggest?
a) Perfect positive correlation
b) Perfect negative correlation
c) No correlation
d) Weak negative correlation
View Answer
26. How is the strength of correlation indicated in the given example?
a) By the standard deviation of the variables
b) By the covariance of the variables
c) By the correlation coefficient
d) By the mean of the variables
View Answer
27. What does a correlation coefficient of 0 imply?
a) Perfect positive correlation
b) Perfect negative correlation
c) No correlation
d) Weak correlation
View Answer
28. What does covariance measure?
a) The spread of variable values
b) The direction of the relationship between variables
c) The magnitude of the relationship between variables
d) The strength of the relationship between variables
View Answer
29. What is the significance of a correlation coefficient greater than 0?
a) Perfect negative correlation
b) Positive correlation
c) No correlation
d) Inverse correlation
View Answer
30. How does correlation coefficient differ from covariance?
a) Covariance measures strength, while correlation measures direction.
b) Correlation measures strength, while covariance measures direction.
c) Covariance and correlation measure the same thing.
d) Covariance measures the spread of values, while correlation measures the magnitude of the relationship.
View Answer
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Gene Action & Epixtasis
1. What term describes the interaction within alleles of a gene controlling a single character?
A) Interallelic interaction
B) Epistatic interaction
C) Intra-allele interaction
D) Supplementary gene action
View Answer
2. Which gene action occurs when one allele of a gene is substituted by another allele, producing the
same, positive, or negative effect?
A) Dominant gene action
B) Additive gene action
C) Epistatic gene action
D) Recessive gene action
View Answer
3. In additive gene action, what type of genotype produces a phenotype that is intermediate between those produced by the homozygous genotypes?
A) Homozygous dominant
B) Heterozygous
C) Homozygous recessive
D) Co-dominant
View Answer
4. Which type of gene action occurs when the presence or absence of an allele in one locus affects the expression of another allele in a different locus?
A) Intra-allele interaction
B) Supplementary gene action
C) Dominant gene action
D) Epistatic gene action
View Answer
5. What term describes the type of gene action where each of two alleles contributes equally to the production of qualitative phenotypes?
A) Dominant gene action
B) Recessive gene action
C) Co-dominant gene action
D) Epistatic gene action
View Answer
6. Which type of epistatic gene interaction exerts an additive effect?
A) Recessive epistasis (9:3:4)
B) Dominant epistasis (12:3:1)
C) Duplicate recessive epistasis (9:7)
D) Duplicate dominant epistasis (15:1)
View Answer
7. In the dominant epistasis (12:3:1) interaction, which allele masks the expression of the other alleles?
A) Recessive allele
B) Co-dominant allele
C) Dominant allele
D) Inhibitory allele
View Answer
8. What example illustrates dominant epistasis in fruit coloration?
A) Green fruits controlled by gene W
B) Yellow fruits controlled by gene G
C) White fruits controlled by gene W
D) Green fruits controlled by gene G
View Answer
- In the dominant epistasis (12:3:1) interaction, what genotype produces green fruits?
A) W-G
B) wwG
C) W-gg
D) wwgg
View Answer10. What term describes the gene interaction where one dominant gene has its own phenotypic effect,
while another dominant gene modifies its expression?
A) Supplementary gene action
B) Co-dominant gene action
C) Recessive gene action
D) Epistatic gene action
View Answer
11. What ratio is observed in the supplementary gene action (recessive epistasis) interaction?
A) 9:3:4
B) 12:3:1
C) 13:3
D) 9:7
View Answer
12. What characteristic describes the interaction between alleles in the supplementary gene action?
A) One allele is dominant over the other
B) Both alleles are co-dominant
C) One allele is recessive to the other
D) Both alleles are dominant but interact in a specific manner
View Answer
13. In which gene interaction is white color codominant over both yellow and green?
A) Recessive epistasis (9:3:4)
B) Dominant epistasis (12:3:1)
C) Dominant and recessive (inhibitory) epistasis (13:3)
D) Duplicate recessive epistasis (9:7)
View Answer
14. Which type of gene interaction involves the modification of gene expression by another gene?
A) Recessive gene action
B) Co-dominant gene action
C) Epistatic gene action
D) Additive gene action
View Answer
15. What characteristic distinguishes polymeric gene interaction (9:6:1) from other types of epistatic
interactions?
A) It involves three genes
B) It produces a 9:6:1 ratio
C) It involves two genes
D) It produces a 12:3:1 ratio
View Answer
16. What type of gene interaction occurs when one gene completely masks the effect of another gene?
A) Recessive epitasis (9:3:4)
B) Dominant epistasis (12:3:1)
C) Dominant and recessive (inhibitory) epistasis (13:3)
D) Duplicate recessive epistasis (9:7)
View Answer
17. In a cross between plants with white and yellow fruits, what ratio is observed in the F2 generation according to dominant epistasis (12:3:1)?
A) 9:16
B) 3:16
C) 12:3:1
D) 1:16
View Answer
18. Which type of epistasis is exemplified by skin color in mice and seed coat color in barley?
A) Recessive epistasis (9:3:4)
B) Dominant epistasis (12:3:1)
C) Duplicate recessive epistasis (9:7)
D) Polymeric gene interaction (9:6:1)
View Answer
19. What characteristic defines duplicate dominant epistasis (15:1)?
A) It involves two genes
B) It produces a 15:1 ratio
C) It involves three genes
D) It produces a 9:6:1 ratio
View Answer
20. In which gene interaction does one allele exert an inhibitory effect on another allele?
A) Recessive epitasis (9:3:4)
B) Dominant epistasis (12:3:1)
C) Dominant and recessive (inhibitory) epistasis (13:3)
D) Duplicate recessive epistasis (9:7)
View Answer
21. What ratio is observed in the duplicate recessive epistasis (9:7) interaction?
A) 9:16
B) 3:16
C) 9:7
D) 15:1
View Answer
22. Which gene action is characterized by the contribution of two or more genes to a single contribution
to the final phenotype?
A) Epistatic gene action
B) Additive gene action
C) Polymeric gene interaction
D) Supplementary gene action
View Answer
23. What characteristic distinguishes polymeric gene interaction from other gene interactions?
A) It involves multiple alleles
B) It involves multiple loci
C) It involves only two genes
D) It produces a 9:3:4 ratio
View Answer
24. In which type of gene interaction does the epistatic action of one gene completely mask the effect of another gene?
A) Dominant epistasis
B) Recessive epistasis
C) Duplicate recessive epistasis
D) Dominant and recessive (inhibitory) epistasis
View Answer
25. What type of gene action involves the modification of gene expression by another gene, resulting in a 9:6:1 ratio?
A) Recessive epistasis
B) Dominant and recessive (inhibitory) epistasis
C) Duplicate recessive epistasis
D) Polymeric gene interaction
View Answer
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Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium
1. Which of the following best describes the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
a) It represents an ideal state where allele frequencies in a population remain constant over time
b) It occurs when gene mutations lead to changes in allele frequencies
c) It involves constant migration of individuals into and out of a population
d) It results from non-random mating patterns within a population
View Answer
2. What condition must be met for a population to be considered in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
a) Gene mutations must occur frequently
b) Migration of individuals into and out of the population must be continuous
c) Random mating must occur within the population
d) Genetic drift must lead to significant changes in allele frequencies
View Answer
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the rules necessary for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
a) No natural selection may occur
b) No gene mutations may occur
c) There must be constant migration of individuals into the population
d) No genetic drift may occur
View Answer
4. What does the Hardy-Weinberg equation 𝑝𝑝 + 𝑞𝑞 = 1 represent?
a) The frequency of individuals with the homozygous dominant genotype
b) The frequency of individuals with the heterozygous genotype
c) The relationship between the frequency of dominant and recessive alleles in a population
d) The impact of genetic drift on allele frequencies
View Answer
5. In the context of the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, what does the frequency 𝑞𝑞² represent?
a) The frequency of individuals with the heterozygous genotype
b) The frequency of individuals with the homozygous recessive genotype
c) The frequency of individuals with the homozygous dominant genotype
d) The total population size
View Answer
6. In Example 1a, if the frequency of white cats (𝑞𝑞) is 0.4, what is the frequency of black cats (𝑝𝑝)?
a) 0.6
b) 0.4
c) 0.36
d) 0.48
View Answer
7. What is the total population of cats in Example 1a?
a) 800
b) 1,000
c) 672
d) 160
View Answer
8. According to Example 1a, how many black cats have the genotype Bb?
a) 360
b) 480
c) 160
d) 672
View Answer
9. How is the frequency of individuals with the heterozygous genotype calculated in the Hardy-Weinberg
Equilibrium?
a) 𝑝𝑝²
b) 𝑞𝑞²
c) 2𝑝𝑝𝑞𝑞
d) 𝑝𝑝 + 𝑞𝑞
View Answer
10. In Example 1b, if the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals (𝑞𝑞²) is 0.16, what is the frequency of the recessive allele (𝑞𝑞)?
a) 0.16
b) 0.4
c) 0.48
d) 0.6
View Answer
11. In a population of finches, the allele frequency for black beaks is 0.7. What is the allele frequency for
yellow beaks?
A) 0.1
B) 0.2
C) 0.3
D) 0.4
View Answer
12. What genotype represents the individuals with heterozygous beak color in finches?
A) DD
B) Dd
C) dd
D) Cannot be determined
View Answer
13. If a population of finches is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, what is the expected frequency of individuals with the genotype dd if the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.3?
A) 0.09
B) 0.16
C) 0.3
D) 0.4
View Answer
14. In a population of lizards, 64 individuals have the genotype gg out of a total of 1600 individuals. What is the frequency of the recessive allele?
A) 0.04
B) 0.1
C) 0.2
D) 0.4
View Answer
15. If the allele frequency for green scales in a population of lizards is 0.8, what is the frequency of the recessive allele?
A) 0.2
B) 0.3
C) 0.4
D) 0.6
View Answer
16. Which of the following represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population of lizards with the genotype Gg if the allele frequency for green scales is 0.8?
A) 0.16
B) 0.32
C) 0.48
D) 0.64
View Answer
17. If a population of rabbits is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium and has an allele frequency of 0.6 for short ears, what is the frequency of individuals with the genotype for floppy ears (qq)?
A) 0.16
B) 0.36
C) 0.4
D) 0.64
View Answer
18. In a population of rabbits, if the frequency of the dominant allele (p) is 0.23, what is the frequency of the recessive allele?
A) 0.23
B) 0.54
C) 0.77
D) 0.87
View Answer
19. Which of the following indicates a population is not in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
A) Allele frequencies remain constant over generations
B) Genotype frequencies follow a specific mathematical relationship
C) Allele frequencies change from one generation to another
D) Genotype frequencies deviate due to genetic drift
View Answer
20. In a population of pea plants with purple petals, if the allele frequency for purple petals is 0.9, what is the frequency of individuals with white petals?
A) 0.01
B) 0.09
C) 0.1
D) 0.18
View Answer
21. If a population of pea plants has 552 individuals with 546 having purple petals, what is the frequency of the recessive allele?
A) 0.1
B) 0.2
C) 0.3
D) 0.4
View Answer
22. What represents the genotype of individuals with floppy ears in a population of rabbits if short ears are dominant and the allele frequency for short ears is 0.6?
A) SS
B) Ss
C) ss
D) Cannot be determined
View Answer
23. If a population of lizards has an allele frequency of 0.7 for green scales, what is the frequency of individuals with blue scales?
A) 0.04
B) 0.1
C) 0.2
D) 0.3
Answer:View Answer
24. What is the expected frequency of individuals with the genotype Gg in a population of lizards if the frequency of the dominant allele (p) is 0.7?
A) 0.16
B) 0.32
C) 0.42
D) 0.64
View Answer
25. If a population of finches is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, what is the frequency of individuals with the recessive genotype if the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.4?
A) 0.09
B) 0.16
C) 0.3
D) 0.4
View Answer
26. In a population of rabbits, if the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.4, what is the frequency of individuals with the genotype for floppy ears (qq)?
A) 0.16
B) 0.36
C) 0.4
D) 0.64
View Answer
27. If a population of lizards is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium and has an allele frequency of 0.8 for green scales, what is the frequency of individuals with blue scales?
A) 0.04
B) 0.1
C) 0.2
D) 0.3
View Answer
28. In a population of finches, if the allele frequency for black beaks is 0.6, what is the frequency of
individuals with yellow beaks?
A) 0.09
B) 0.16
C) 0.3
D) 0.4
View Answer
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Gene And Genotype Frequency
1. What is gene frequency?
a) The total number of genes in a population
b) The ratio of a particular allele to the total of all other alleles of the same gene in a given population
c) The proportion of dominant alleles in a population
d) The frequency of mutations occurring in a gene
View Answer
2. How can gene frequency be expressed?
a) Only as a percentage
b) Only as a fraction
c) As a fraction or percentage
d) As a decimal value only
View Answer
3. Which of the following statements is true regarding natural selection?
a) It leads to a decrease in genetic diversity within a population
b) It favors individuals with genotypes that are less adapted to their environment
c) It is a random process with no impact on gene frequencies
d) It favors individuals better adapted to their environment, leading to changes in gene frequencies over time
View Answer
4. What is genotypic frequency?
a) The total number of genes in a population
b) The frequency of a genotype in a population
c) The proportion of heterozygous individuals in a population
d) The frequency of mutations occurring in a gene
View Answer
5. Allele frequency refers to:
a) The total number of alleles in a population
b) The proportion of genotypic combinations in a population
c) How frequently a particular allele appears in a population
d) The ratio of homozygous dominant alleles to homozygous recessive alleles in a population
View Answer
6. How is allele frequency calculated?
a) By counting the total number of individuals in a population
b) By dividing the number of individuals with a specific genotype by the total population size
c) By dividing the number of copies of a specific allele by the total number of A/a gene copies in the population
d) By calculating the proportion of phenotypic variations in a population
View Answer
7. When might there be more than two alleles in a population?
a) Only in artificial laboratory conditions
b) When studying organisms with a simple genetic makeup
c) When studying organisms with a complex genetic makeup
d) There can only be two alleles in any population
View Answer
8. What does the denominator represent in the allele frequency calculation?
a) The total number of individuals in the population
b) The number of homozygous individuals in the population
c) The total number of alleles in the population
d) The number of heterozygous individuals in the population
View Answer
9. Which statement about genotype frequencies is true?
a) They indicate the proportion of alleles in a population
b) They describe the ratio of individuals with a specific phenotype to the total population
c) They provide information about the frequency of specific combinations of alleles in a population
d) They reflect the total number of alleles in a population
View Answer
10. Phenotype frequencies refer to:
a) The proportion of genotypic combinations in a population
b) How frequently a particular phenotype appears in a population
c) The ratio of alleles in a population
d) The frequency of mutations occurring in a gene
View Answer
11. In natural selection, which individuals are more likely to survive and reproduce?
a) Those with the least favorable genotypes
b) Those with the most common genotypes
c) Those with genotypes that are better adapted to their environment
d) Those with heterozygous genotypes
View Answer
12. How does natural selection influence gene frequencies in a population over time?
a) It has no effect on gene frequencies
b) It leads to random changes in gene frequencies
c) It favors certain genotypes, leading to their increase in frequency
d) It decreases genetic diversity within a population
View Answer
13. What term describes the situation where all the alleles in a population are the same?
a) Allele uniformity
b) Allele heterogeneity
c) Allele diversity
d) Allele fixation
View Answer
14. What does a gene pool represent?
a) The total number of genes in a population
b) The sum of all alleles in a population
c) The frequency of mutations occurring in a population
d) The proportion of heterozygous individuals in a population
View Answer
15. Which of the following factors can contribute to changes in allele frequencies within a population?
a) Genetic drift
b) Natural selection
c) Mutation
d) All of the above
View Answer
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Download the PDF files containing the MCQs sets using the provided links above.
Allocate a suitable time to attempt each set of questions. Answer each question to the best of your knowledge. After completing each set, review your answers and identify areas for improvement. Utilize these MCQs as a tool for reinforcing your understanding of Animal Breeding And Genetics.
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